Tuesday, 21 April 2026

The Economist on Modi vs Mughals

The Economist has a foolish issue titled 'What have the Mughals ever done for us?'

 The answer is- nothing. They lost power 300 years ago. They can't do shit for themselves, let alone anybody else. 

How India’s greatest Muslim empire built its most powerful Hindu party

The BJP was created by the RSS- an anti-British, high-caste, Hindu outfit just like the Congress party. Indeed, Dr. Hardikar- who created the Congress Seva Dal- was an old college chum of Dr. Hegdewar- who founded the RSS a few years later just in case the Seva Dal was banned. 
In speeches to  supporters, to parliament and to the nation, Narendra Modi has repeatedly invoked India’s centuries of slavery.

Because Sonia Gandhi was of Italian origin. Modi was saying that the Dynasty was foreign. Manmohan Singh was a 'prone' Minister who had no power of his own.  The Congress party was just a bunch of sycophants currying favour with the Ruling Family. 

Soon after taking power in 2014, he lamented that “the mentality of 1,200 years of slavery continues to haunt us.

Modi was speaking in Delhi. He was appealing to the indigenous tribes & communities of the region who felt alienated from successive dynasties (including Rajput rulers like Pritviraj, though Modi didn't say so). Modi was from Gujarat but had some how turned himself into a UP-wallah in Benares- where was elected to the Central Parliament- and some sort of Jat or Gujjar in Delhi & Haryana.  

'It is often a challenge for us to hold our heads high when speaking to someone of even slightly elevated stature.”

This was a dig at Manmohan- a Sikh who served a Dynasty which had slaughtered his people in Delhi some twenty years previously. Essentially, Modi was presenting himself as restoring 'subaltern' rule to the Capital City which had been dominated by elites & aristocrats who looked down on the toiling masses. Towards this end, he changed the name of 'Rajpath' (King's Way) to Kartavya path (path of Duty) four years ago. It should be mentioned, Modi is the first 'Backward Caste' Prime Minister. He couldn't afford to go to College. Yet, by merit alone, he had been Gujarat's longest serving and most successful Chief Minister. He has now completed an even longer stint as PM. There has been nothing like him in the annals of Indian politics. 

Consider his 'missed call' strategy in the 2014 election. Originally this was a voter mobilization technique. But then he pivoted and said 'take my mobile number. If you don't get your entitlement- give 'missed call'. My team will get back to you within a couple of days & solve the problem. This was more than 'approachability'. It was 'customer service'. For the first time, India had a leader who thought his job was to ensure 'last mile delivery'.  

The chief target of the grievance is the series of Muslim empires

which had yielded to a Hindu Maratha Empire 

that came before British colonialism.

Fuck that. Nehru had presided over massive ethnic cleaning of Muslims. In Delhi their population share plummeted from 33 percent to 5 percent. Muslims who had fled across the border in panic were not permitted to return. They were stripped of citizenship. Reservations or affirmative action of any kind were denied to them.  Urdu lost its status as Hindi in Devanagari script was made the official language. The BJP can't compete with Congress when it comes to killing Muslims- or Sikhs, for that matter. Thus Modi was playing up the OBC/Dalit/ST angle. That is why he has had a second Dalit President and now, for the first time ever, a lady President from the 'Tribal' Santhal community. Modi understands that 'Mandal' is more important than 'Mandir'- i.e. empowerment of 'Backward' castes & women is the name of the game. True, building the Ram Temple creates a feel good factor but what really matters is India's ongoing social revolution. The poorer OBC woman is now the decisive swing voter. That's why Modi is betting big on reserved seats for women. 

The Mughals were the longest-lasting of those.

They were big for about 200 years. The Sultanate lasted for more than 300 years.  

April 21st marks exactly 500 years since the Battle of Panipat, when Babur, a Central Asian descendant of Tamerlane and Genghis Khan (hence “Mughal”, from “Mongol”), defeated the last sultan of Delhi.

Who was of Afghan descent.  

The empire he established was, at its height, one of the world’s richest and most powerful.

India, like China, benefitted from Mexican silver but, because it was getting cut out of even Indian ocean trade, it was bound to decline.  

Its rulers adopted customs of Indian kingship, married locally and in effect became Indian

like the Sultanate & the Nizamat & so forth 

(unlike the Brits).

There were plenty of Eurasians. Joe Biden has an Indian cousin.  

Their achievements are Indian achievements.

They were Indian aristocrats. Modi isn't an aristocrat at all. Unlike the Dynasty, his ancestor hadn't served first the Mughals & then John Company. They weren't educated. They were oil pressers by profession living in small towns and villages.  

Yet the quincentenary of the empire’s founding will pass without note.

Because they vanished long long ago.  

The Mughals, Mr Modi’s Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) insists, destroyed temples (which is true) and humiliated Hindus (which is contested). They took everything India had. And what, the ideology asks, did they ever give us in return?

Opportunities to get castrated to serve in the harem as eunuchs?  

Language, for one thing.

We don't speak Chagatai Turk. We do speak English. Why? The whole world speaks English.  

Mr Modi’s speech in 2014 was delivered in Hindi, India’s most spoken tongue. Of the 28 words that made up the original of his quote above, a quarter entered India via Persian,

the Mughals weren't Persian. It was the Sultanate which adopted Persian which in fact was a big lingua franca at one time.  

points out Richard Eaton, a historian of Muslim India. The language of the Mughal court infuses the vocabulary of most northern Indian languages.

Urdu, I suppose is a Turkic/Mongol word. It is the same as the English word 'horde'.  

Indeed, “Hindi” and “Hindu” both come from “Hind”, the Persian name for the river known in English as the Indus (thus “India”). But what, apart from putting the “Hindu” in “Hindu nationalism”, have the Mughals ever done for us?

Nothing. They descended into destitution long ago. Every other day, some newspaper will pick up some beggar & say they are the heir to the Peacock Throone.  

The cuisine known globally as “Indian” is in India called “Mughlai”.

It isn't what Modi eats. He has 'thali' like most Hindus.  The fact is you go to a restaurant to eat stuff you don't cook at home. 

The tandoor, a clay oven from which emerge flaky naans and charred kebabs, came from the Persianate world, as did samosas, sherbets, various desserts and biryani—India’s most-ordered dish on delivery apps for ten years straight.

So what? Pizza too is popular. As for 'Gobi Manchurian', don't get me started.  

The party-pooper wing of the BJP frowns on meat and eggs but even vegetarians enjoy a good tandoori paneer (from the Persian panir, a kind of cottage cheese that probably came via Afghans).

Actually, Indian cuisine owes more to the Portuguese & Spanish who introduced new vegetables, chilis & dishes like ras malai.  

Granted, tandoori anything is irresistible.

So are potato chips & tomato ketchup.  

But what, apart from language and food, have the Mughals ever done for us?

Does this nutter really think Babur invented Persian or the tandoor?  

Four of India’s ten most popular ticketed historical sites for local tourists, and six among foreigners, were built by Mughals.

But, relative to its size & population, Tourism isn't big business in India. The truth is the most visited places are Hindu religious sites.  

The Taj Mahal tops both lists. Every year the prime minister delivers an Independence Day speech from the Red Fort, a Mughal monument in Delhi so central to India’s self-image it features on the back of the most common banknote.

Only because the Brits didn't blow it up. But, truth be told, it's a bit shitty.  

The sitar, made famous by George Harrison,

who he?  

is a product of the Mughal era.

Babur invented sitar. Sadly he tried to turn it into a biryani by cooking it in tandoor.  

The sherwani, worn by grooms Hindu and Muslim, evolved from Mughal court dress.

It bears no resemblance to the angarkha. Seeing British soldiers kick ass convinced Indians that men should not wear colourful frocks. 

“The popular religions of medieval India, Sufism, the Urdu language, and Indo-Saracen art were the common property of the conquerors and the conquered, and tended to blend them together,” wrote Jadunath Sarkar, a revered Indian historian.

This happened during the Sultanate.  

Persian translations of Hindu epics were commissioned by Akbar, a Mughal emperor fascinated by religious practices (a trait Aurangzeb, his great-grandson and a keen demolisher of temples, did not share).

But it was a trait Dara Shikoh, Aurangazeb's elder brother, displayed to a greater degree.  

But what, apart from language, food, architecture, music, art and syncretism

all of which already existed before Babur was chased out of the Ferghana Valley 

have the Mughals ever done for us?

Mughals invented tandoori sitar biryani. If you smoke a lot of ganja, you will find it very tasty.  

They brought the BJP to power.

No. Rahul's yellow streak brought Modi to power. He should have shouldered aside Manmohan, become PM & led his party to victory in 2014.  

In 1990, when the party held just 16% of seats in parliament,

In 1985, it had 0.3 %. After Indira was assassinated, her son won by a landslide- a reward for the killing of lots of Sikhs.  

it launched a national campaign demanding a temple on the ground said to be the birthplace of Lord Ram, the protagonist of the Ramayana.

Rajiv had opened it to Hindu worship. He should have built the Ram Temple himself & probably would have done if he hadn't been killed. Sonia promised to build it in 2002 when Rahul returned to India.  

At that site stood a mosque built during the reign of Babur, the first Mughal emperor. In 1992 a mob demolished the mosque under the gaze of BJP officials, sparking a nationwide conflagration

Muslims acted up & were massacred. Minorities get stomped if they start any rough stuff. File under- sad but true.  

that forged the party’s base,

The RSS & 'Sangh parivar' had forged it long ago.  

eventually propelling it to office.

It had been part of the Janata coalition in 1977. As the other components of that alliance either imploded or became factionalized, Atal Behari Vajpayee emerged as a popular PM. But his was a coalition government & he himself more than a little senile.  

By early 2024, when Mr Modi consecrated the promised temple, his party held 56% of seats.

Thanks to Rahul's utter uselessness. But, under Kharge, Congress was able to make some good pre-poll pacts which is why the BJP no longer has a majority.  

It has spent the past decade renaming Mughal cities, rejecting Mughal cuisine, and writing Mughals out of history books.

Nobody gives a flying fuck. What matters is whether 'Backward castes' & women feel they are getting an increasing share of power. Also, cash transfers. Everybody likes money.  

It is one thing to raze an edifice of brick and mortar. It is harder to eradicate a culture that

disappeared three hundred years ago.  

has over five centuries permeated India’s blood and soil.

Fuck off! India's blood & soil cares only about money- not Mughals or Mauryas or Lord fucking Mountbatten.  

That, then, is the best answer to their question of what the Mughals have ever done for them. They gave political Hinduism its eternal, indispensable villain.

No. Akbar wasn't a fucking jihadi suicide bomber. He was too busy baking sitars in the tandoor to serve up as biryani.  

Monday, 20 April 2026

Koselleck's krap kounterkoncept

 When I was a kid, I read the Asimov 'Foundation' novels & thought it would be cool to have a 'theory of history' which would permit me to predict what would happen in the manner of Hari Seldon. Sadly, I was too stupid to get a PhD in Math & thus had to settle for some off the peg theory of an Economistic type- maybe this is the 'law of increasing functional information'. The problem is that the 'fitness landscape' features Knightian Uncertainty- i.e. is arbitrary. Thus history will always remain something which happens to us, rather than something we can shape to some grander purpose. 

Koselleck, when I was young, was considered the Prince of 'Conceptual History' but- my memory is- his work wasn't available in English & thus one heard of him only from smart people who had studied in Germany.

Wikipedia gives the following account of his first book (which was translated in 1988)

Critique and Crisis
In his dissertation and 1959 book, Koselleck argues that contemporary understandings of politics have become dangerously depoliticized by Enlightenment utopianism:

This was around the time that the SDP embraced the Bad Godesberg program. Koselleck represents the Right-Wing reaction to it just as Habermas represents the left-wing reaction to this 'Butskellite' convergence to Mixed Economy Keynesianism.  

A reaction against absolutism (the Hobbesian state), which was itself a reaction against the religious wars of the Reformation period in Europe. Koselleck closely follows Carl Schmitt's argument from The Leviathan in the State Theory of Thomas Hobbes by arguing that the absolutist state had made morality a matter of strictly private and individual judgement, disallowing moral conscience any role in political decision-making.

This could be said of 'Enlightened despots'- Fredrick & Catherine the equally great- but wasn't a feature of 'limited monarchies'. 

 This overcame religious civil war and gave rise to the early modern, centralized state, which had a clear, narrow and authoritarian conception of politics as the monopolization of legitimate violence and the guaranteeing of obedience, security and order.

But those centralised states tended to fall behind bourgeois societies.  

Consequently, within the absolutist state, the private realm grew in power,

it really didn't. In limited monarchies, power passed to the third Estate as it became the main generator of revenue.  

enabled by the degree of civil liberalism afforded by the regime toward private life.

Unless you were a serf.  

This private moral sphere was nurtured by the Enlightenment (especially, claims Koselleck, in the Republic of Letters and in "non-political" bourgeois secret societies such as the Illuminati and the Freemasons), consolidating itself around a self-conception as an emergent bourgeois "Society" during the 18th century.

But if the land was the primary source of income & wealth, the bourgeoisie would be restricted to small urban enclaves.  

"Society" constituted a countervailing power which, by upholding the legitimacy of "critique" against existing political authoritarianism, eventually challenged the state, but in an apolitical, utopian way. "In the process," writes Victor Gourevitch in his foreword to Critique and Crisis, "existing political societies came to be judged by standards which take little or no account of the constraints which political men must inevitably take into account, standards which for all political intents and purposes are therefore Utopian."

In other words, if you are poor & powerless, you indulge in day dreams of the Land of Cockaigne.  

The problem is that the moralism and utopianism of modern ideologies is purely speculative and can offer no viable alternatives to prevailing institutions and practices. Hence, Enlightenment's anti-statism creates a "permanent crisis", a relapse into a kind of ideological civil war, which had culminated in enduring political instability and particularly in the 20th-century phenomena of Soviet and Nazi totalitarianism and the ideological conflict of the Cold War.

I think Germany changed over the Fifties because everybody could see that 'Sovietization' had failed miserably in the East. Thus the shibboleth of 'collective ownership of the means of production' was given up. 

Koselleck argues that politics is better understood from the point of view of public servants, politicians, and statesmen who are embedded within political institutions and immanently aware of their constraints and limitations, rather than from the supposedly disinterested perspective of philosophers and other social critics.

This may have been true of Germany. It wasn't true of Anglo-Saxon countries where the statesman might have started off as a merchant or manufacturer.  

 His aim is to re-politicize contemporary discussions of politics and infuse them with a sense that conflict is an inevitable part of public life and an unavoidable factor in all political decision making, an argument reminiscent of Carl Schmitt, Koselleck's most important mentor

In other words, he was rebelling against the post-war 'convergence hypothesis' such that a technocratic 'mixed economy' became the rule. 

Koselleck's portrayal of the Enlightenment public sphere in Critique and Crisis has often been criticized as reactionary and anti-modernist.[11] His emphasis on the "secrecy" and "hypocrisy" of the 18th-century German Enlightenment, and his preoccupation with Enlightenment as a source of conflict and crisis, has been read as an overly pessimistic account of the origins of modern world-views. It sits in stark contrast to the work of Jürgen Habermas, whose account of the 18th century Enlightenment holds it up as a model of democratic and deliberative politics.[12] Moreover, his claim in the introduction of Critique and Crisis that the 20th century was gripped by a catastrophic "world crisis," has been criticized as being guilty of the same sort of secular eschatology he warns against within the text itself. In fact, for Koselleck modern philosophies were a form of a secularized version of eschatology: that is, theological prophecies of future salvation, an interpretation he adopted from Karl Löwith, his teacher at Heidelberg University.[13] Others insist that the accusations against Koselleck of reactionary pessimism are overstated, and that he is rather attempting to engender a more reflexive and realistic use of political and social concepts.[14]

The question is whether such concepts actually exist in any useful manner. No doubt, they may be useful for teaching history, but history isn't its own pedagogy. It is a data set which can help us test our 'Structural Causal Models'.

In his book 'Futures Past' Koselleck writes-  

HE HISTORICAL-POLITICAL SEMANTICS OF ASYMMETRIC COUNTERCONCEPTS Pugnant ergo inter se mali et mali; item pugnant inter se mali et boni; boni vero et boni, si perfecti sunt, inter se pugnare non possunt. —Augustine, De Civ. Dei XV, 5

This means 'Thus the wicked fight among themselves; likewise the wicked and the good fight among themselves; but the good and the good, if they are perfect, cannot fight among themselves.' 

Sadly, this isn't true. Some people fight. Others don't. One might say 'the perfect don't fight' but they might do if that is what is required. Two perfectly good people may have different theories of a useful sort. They may fight each other with relevant empirical evidence. 

Names for oneself and for others belong to the everyday life of men and women.

I was once taught Statistics by a Professor Thambi (which means younger brother). I asked him what his actual name was. He didn't know. His elder brother, who had raised him from the age of 5, thought it might be either Sadasivaramamurthy or Venkatanarasimharajuvaripeta. He had sent his Bengali peon with the boy to get him admitted to School. Sadly, he had neglected to tell him the boy's name. So the peon gave his name as 'Thambi' and it stuck. 

They articulate the identity of a person and of that person’s relation to others.

No. They are merely names. Robertson isn't the son of a guy named Robert.  

In this process there might be agreement on the use of such expressions, or each might use for his opposite a term different from that employed by the latter.

In some societies one's name is a secret. You have a pet name & a social name but, to reduce the possibility of hostile magic, the actual name is only known to the Family Priest.  

It makes a difference whether mutually recognized names are spoken (e.g., Hans and Liese), or whether these are replaced by abusive nicknames.

Not really. Saying 'Hans is a swine' is just as bad as referring to him as a fucking pig.  

So, for instance, among relatives there is a difference between the use of “mother” and “son,” and “old bag” and “layabout.”

Not if it is said affectionately.  

In the same way, it makes a difference if certain functions are defined as “employer” and “employee” or as “exploiter” and “human material.” In the one case, one’s names for oneself and names others call one coincide, whereas, in the other, they diverge.

Not really. What is said matters less than what is meant.  

...The effectiveness of mutual classifications is historically intensified as soon as they are applied to groups.

Not necessarily. Both 'Whig' & 'Tory' were originally insults. Then they were embraced by those so designated. 'Yid' is a pejorative term for Jews unless it is used by supporters of Tottenham Football Club for whom it is a rallying cry. 

The simple use of “we” and “you” establishes a boundary

No. Prof Thambi would often say 'today we are going to learn about heteroscedasticity'. Nobody thought he didn't know all about it already. 

and is in this respect a condition of possibility determining a capacity to act. But a “we” group can become a politically effective and active unity only through concepts which are more than just simple names or typifications.

Nonsense! Nobody knows how or why Tottenham supporters decided to refer to themselves as 'Yids'. We guess that it was a slur used against them at football matches & they took it up as a matter of pride.  

A political or social agency is first constituted through concepts by means of which it circumscribes itself and hence excludes others, and therefore, by means of which it defines itself.

Nonsense! A Tory, like Rishi Sunak, is not an Irish Catholic rebel nor is Ken Binmore, who describes himself as a Whig, a Scottish Presbyterian who thinks it great fun to smash up Catholic chapels.  

A group may empirically develop on the basis of command or consent, of contract or propaganda, of necessity or kinship, and so forth; but however constituted, concepts are needed within which the group can recognize and define itself,

They are wholly unnecessary. True, if there is a market for the thing, some Professor or Journalist may invent a more or less bogus 'concept' for some collective which pre-exists.  

if it wishes to present itself as a functioning agency.

You can have a concept & yet achieve nothing- i.e. fulfil no function (e.g. the Institute of Socioproctology) while there are plenty of functioning agencies whose 'concept' is not specified.  (like the Institute of Chartered Accountants. Clearly, it is different from the Institute of Certified Accountancy, but there is no functional difference between a Certified & Chartered Accountant. 

In the sense used here, a concept does not merely denote such an agency, it marks and creates the unity.

Because it has magical properties. Did you know that if you have the concept of Beyonce, you can turn into a beautiful superstar?  

The concept is not merely a sign for, but also a factor in, political or social groupings.

Concepts are like opinions- every asshole can have plenty of both.  

There are innumerable concepts of this kind which, while being concretely applied, have a general utility.

Some concepts are useful- up to a point. But they don't actually exist nor do they 'constitute' anything. Also if you are fucking the concept of Supermodel, you are merely a wanker.  

An acting agency

is like a modelling agency. Mine promised to get me the lead in 'Pretty Woman'. Sadly, the producer thought I looked to Jewy & so Julia Roberts got the part.  

might, therefore, define itself as a polis, people, party, Stand, society, church, or state without preventing those excluded from the agency from conceiving of themselves in turn as a polis, people, and so on.

The Institute of Socioproctology may define itself as a place for real bright people. Sadly, those who refuse to join (including me) because they can't afford the twenty pence membership fee, are welcome to conceive themselves as supersmart gigolos who spend their time sexually servicing Super-models (female ones).  

Such general and concrete concepts can be used on an equal basis and can be founded upon mutuality.

This is also true of masturbation. Who is to say Supermodels aren't fisting themselves thinking of me?  

They are transferable. It is certainly true, however, that historical agencies tend to establish their singularity by means of general concepts, claiming them as their own.

No. They establish their singularity by own property & paying wages & receiving revenue.  

For a Catholic, “the Church” might mean only the one he attends; similarly, there is only “the Party” for a Communist, and “the Nation” for the French Revolutionary.

Nonsense! The educated Catholic knows that there are some quite historically distinct churches which are in full communion with Rome. Some such have married priests. Most ruling Communist parties contain historically different smaller parties- e.g. China Zhi Gong party. The French Revolutionaries generally considered Corsica to be part of the Nation but not all agreed re. the French speaking parts of Belgium. 

The use of the definite article here serves the purpose of political and social singularization.

When you say 'I've got to go the office'- people understanding you are going to work. Your wife may reply 'me too. See you tonight.' This doesn't mean you work at the same place as your wife.  

In such cases, a given group makes an exclusive claim to generality, applying a linguistically universal concept to itself alone and rejecting all comparison.

Nonsense! Saying 'I'm going to the office' doesn't mean there is only one office where everybody works.  

This kind of self-definition provokes counterconcepts which discriminate against those who have been defined as the “other.”

It may do. It may not. Protestant Churches, in Europe, protested against Catholicism. But some currently Protestant Churches- e.g. Mar Thoma or Byzantine Rite Lutheran- don't consider themselves to have reacted to Catholicism. 

The nonCatholic becomes heathen or traitor;

No. Some non-Catholic Churches were and are in full communion with Rome.  

to leave the Communist party does not mean to change party allegiance, but is rather “like leaving life, leaving mankind” (J. Kuczynski);

in some places, not others.  

not to mention the negative terms that European nations have used for each other in times of conflict and that were transferred from one nation to another according to the changing balance of power.

Sticks and stones may break our bones. Names can't hurt us.  

Thus there are a great number of concepts recorded which function to deny the reciprocity of mutual recognition.

None fulfil any such function. Saying 'la, la, la, I can't hear you' does not mean that you have turned into a ghost.  

From the concept of the one party follows the definition of the alien other,

No. The alien other needs to be further defined- e.g. class enemy, right deviationist, left adventurist, etc.  

which definition can appear to the latter as a linguistic deprivation, in actuality verging on theft.

When people call you a cunt, they deprive you of your penis- thinks nobody at all.  

This involves asymmetrically opposed concepts.

No. There are 'uncorrelated asymmetries' such that my wife isn't your wife even if I refer to her as 'the wife'.  

The opposite is not equally antithetical.

It may be.  

The linguistic usage of politics, like that of everyday life, is permanently based on this fundamental figure of asymmetric opposition.

So what? Words don't matter greatly- unless they are witty or alethic or informative in some manner. 

This will be examined in the course of the following discussion. There is one qualification, however: we will deal here only with pairs of concepts that are characterized by their claim to cover the whole of humanity.

There are none such.  

Thus we are dealing with binary concepts with claims to universality. The totality of humanity can, of course, also be comprehended without remainder by classificatory couples involving a mutual recognition of the parties involved (for instance, men and women,

some people may be difficult to classify on this basis 

parents and children,

paternity tests are a thing.  

juveniles and adults,

a movable feast. Sometimes kids are tried as adults.  

the sick and the healthy).

a matter for Medical Science & the Social Security system. Is so-and-so too sick to work? What level of Disability Allowance are they eligible for?  

These terms comprehend humanity as a whole by introducing their natural structure.

They don't comprehend shit. Still, they may be useful. Most people are clearly distinguishable as either men or women. Only a few abide our question.  

Notwithstanding the susceptibility to political accentuation and explosiveness,

or being as boring as fuck 

which all these terms once had or will have, it is not possible to directly transfer such naturalistic expressions into political language.

Nonsense! Every politician does so all the time.  

The historical world, by contrast, operates for the most part with asymmetrical concepts that are unequally antithetical. Three will be examined: the contrast of Hellene and Barbarian,

a movable feast. Athenians often referred to Epirotes, Eleans, Boeotians, and Aeolic-speakers as barbarians. 

Christian and Heathen,

Never very clear cut. There were many precedents for the 'Chinese Rites' controversy.  

and finally, the contrast that emerges within the conceptual field of humanity between human and nonhuman, superhuman and subhuman.

We used to think the Neanderthals were nonhuman. Now, we realize we carry some of their genes. Maybe homo erectus was a language user & tool maker.  

Before we begin to more closely analyze these counterconcepts

Fuck analysis. Look around to find empirical evidence that the concept or counter-concept is defective.  

and the various ways in which their negation is expressed, it is desirable to make three additional methodological points which will enable us to more exactly specify our problematic. The first concerns the relation between concept and history;

They may be useful to summarize material or to go looking for particular types of evidence 

the second, the historical aspect;

how is this different from the first 

and the third, the structural aspect of counterconcepts.

There is no structural aspect unless there is a Structural Causal Model. But, if such a thing exists, we leave aside concepts & look for empirical verification or 'falsifiability'.  

1. Historical movement always takes place within zones mutually delimited by functioning agents,

No. Everything has a history even in the absence of 'agents' of any kind.  

and it is in terms of these zones that the agents simultaneously effect their conceptual articulation.

No. People can talk about Heaven or Hell or what life might be like on a distant planet in a Galaxy far far away.  

But neither social nor political history is ever identical with its conceptual self-expression.

One could equally say 'all social & political history is nothing but conceptual self-expression'. 

History can be written only if the correspondence between material that was once comprehended conceptually and the actual material (methodologically derived from the first) is made the subject of investigation.

Nonsense! History can be written by the court poet and be based wholly on mythology on the one hand & the propaganda of the dynasty on the other.  

This correspondence is infinitely variable and must not be mistaken as an identity; otherwise, every source that was conceptually unambiguous would already be the history that was sought within it.

Annals are annals. Historians may belong to the 'Annales' school.  

In general, language and socoipolitical content coincide in a manner different from that available or comprehensible to the speaking agents themselves.

Later ideas may have had only a very rudimentary expression in earlier ages. This doesn't greatly matter. Look at what people actually do, not what theory they have, and you have a data set which you can use to verify a sophisticated SCM reliant upon a type of analysis which has only recently become possible.  

It is a quality of political language that its concepts, while being related to agencies (institutions, groups, and so forth) and their movement, are not assimilated by them.

They may be. They may not. My own belief, regarding early India is that some sort of discrete math simulation technique was in widespread use. We don't know the details of that 'Sankhya' but can make some educated guesses. It may be that some actual Sutra of this sort may be found but it is quite likely that Sutra literature was produced independently by specialists and that 'the tricks of the trade' were a Guild or family secret.  

In the same way, history is not the sum of all articulated namings and characterizations in political language, nor of political dialogue and discussion.

It has lower Kolmogorov complexity than what it studies- unless it is 'the history of concepts' in which case it is verbose confabulation of a foolish, paranoid or magical type.  

Similarly, history is not assimilated by the concepts through which it is comprehended.

Yes it is. Concepts like 'Stone Age' or 'Iron Age' are useful.  

What is at stake here is the avoidance of a short circuit between conceptual language and political history.

In other words, nothing at all is at stake here.  

This difference  between history and its “conceptualization” will be charted with the methods of historicopolitical semantics.

Pseudo-intellectual garbage.  

2. Especial care is called for in investigating what are not simply individual concepts but pairs of concepts whose world-historical effectiveness cannot be doubted.

No. Exceptional care is called for in brain surgery. What is needful for historians is a great tolerance for mind-numbing boredom.  

One can certainly assume that rigorous dualisms— above all, those which divide all of humanity into two groups with opposing modalities—were politically efficacious and will always be so.

This is why neither England nor Germany gave women the vote.  

On the other hand, the historical record does show that all these global dualisms formerly in use were overtaken by historical experience and to this extent refuted. The suggestively autonomous force of political counterconcepts should not tempt one to regard relations of reciprocity implicit within such couples (and often created by them) as if they continued ever onward in the form of this once-established dualism.

Look a little closer & they never existed. Before the Great War, there were some Society women in England who had more power over the India Office- or, indeed, the War office- than Parliament would have in the inter-war years. That's why Kitchener spent a lot of time writing to titled ladies.  

Past antitheses have tended to be too crude to serve as categories of historical knowledge.

Some have. Some haven't.  

Above all, no historical movement can be adequately evaluated in terms of the self-same counterconcepts used by the participants of such a movement as a means of experiencing or comprehending it.

Because nothing can be adequately evaluated by any means whatsoever unless it really doesn't matter at all.  

Ultimately, that would mean the perpetuation of a victor’s history by his seeking to make permanent a temporary dominance through the negation of the defeated.

There speaks the twice defeated German! Sadly, those sausage eaters had to suck it up & admit to themselves that guys whose uniforms sported  a skull-and-crossbones badge (as had the Kaiser's life-guards & Hitler's SS) were likely to be the bad guys. 

Concepts employable in a particularly antithetical manner have a marked tendency to reshape the various relations and distinctions among groups, to some degree violating those concerned, and in proportion to this violation rendering them capable of political action.

Unless you kill all of them.  

The recognition of such a dynamic requires that former linguistic usage must itself be placed in question.

Fuck that! Just say you did evil shit & have learned the error of your ways.  

A distinction will therefore be made here between past historical usage of antithetical concepts and the semantic structures they are invested with. 

Sadly, there are no 'semantic structures'. There is syntax for particular purposes but there is no 'i-language'. Everything is extensional.  

The following reflections will not be concerned with historical process or the emergence and articulation of dualistic counterconcepts,

in other words, the following reflections will be completely useless 

their change, and the history of their likely effects. It is obvious that historical investigation cannot dispense with the posing and consideration of such questions.

Sure it can. Just focus on the economy- i.e. what people do- not shite people say 

The methodological intention of the following is, however, on a different level: the structure of argument within once historically extant, dualistic, linguistic figures will be examined for the way in which the given counterpositions were negated.

By killing lots & lots of people. If this failed, there was no fucking negation.  

It must be admitted that the structural aspect implies the historical, and vice versa.

No. A structure may have no dynamics or be wholly ergodic. There is no hysteresis or path dependence. Thus the history of the thing is empty.  

In this way, the sources can be read in two ways at once: as the historical utterance of agencies, and as the linguistic articulation of specific semantic structures.

Only if 'language speaks us'. Did you know that there is a language used in the depths of the Amazon forest which has no word for gender? Everybody in that society has both a dick & a vagina. They live peacefully with each other though, sadly, they fuck themselves to death soon after attaining puberty.  

It is characteristic of counterconcepts that are unequally antithetical that one’s own position is readily defined by criteria which make it possible for the resulting counterposition to be only negated.

Since anything at all can not only be negated but also told to fuck the fuck off, this is a wholly trivial 'characteristic'. 

This is what makes up the counterconcepts’ political efficacy but at the same time renders them unsuitable for scientific knowledge

Telling stupid lies may have some political efficacy but only if people want to be ruled by stupid liars.  

In Kant’s words, “. . . dividing things in half leads to the placing together of heterogeneous objects and not at all to a specific concept.”

Dividing doesn't 'place together'. The specific concept created by dividing is called 'division'.  

The recognition of historical bisections in their linguistically asymmetric forms requires the examination of common and distinguishable structures.

No. The structure may not be distinguishable or held in common. What matters is whether there are specific predicates only applicable to one side.  

Once they had emerged historically, the conceptual pairs Hellene-Barbarian,

melted away as Alexander created an Empire based on homonoia.  

Christian-Heathen,

melted away when missionary activity reached a level of sophistication such that entire nations could be converted within the space of a single generation.  

Human-Nonhuman

which began to erode before Charles Darwin was born 

indicated particular modes of experience and expectational possibilities whose given arrangement could turn up under different labels and in different historical situations.

but which didn't matter greatly.  

Each of the antitheses to be examined here has its own structures,

No. It has a different set of predicates. The structure remains an object of investigation through the building and testing of 'models'.  

but it also has structures in common with the others.

Structures matter if you are a structural engineer or a mathematician of the school of Bourbaki. We get that people who teach soft subjects may want to sound smart. But they aren't smart at all. 

... The vast quantity of material that is structured and stylized by counterconcepts cannot be exposed here.

Because there is no such material.  

Instead, the semantic structure of a few politically employed and asymmetrically applicable counterconcepts will be outlined in the course of their emergence. This will make clear how the structure of the first pair, Hellene and Barbarian, continuously reappears;

It really doesn't. Anyway, Alexander killed the thing off long long ago. Lots of different races became Hellenized. Second Maccabees was written in Koine Greek. 

that particular features of the second pair, Christian and Heathen, were contained in the first;

Nonsense! Christianity descends from Judaism- admittedly a Hellenized form of it.  

and finally the counterconcepts that emerge in the semantic field of Humanity in general contain both Greek and Christian elements without, however, being reducible to them.

Fuck off! The Chinese & Indians & Mayans had it long before they came to know of Greeks or Jews or Christians.  

The accumulation of temporalities finally makes it possible for the structure of all these counterconcepts to appear together.

in the work of a shithead teaching a soft subject to cretins.  

... Very roughly, the three pairs can be distinguished in the following way: in the case of the Hellene and the Barbarian, we have, in the first place, mutually exclusive concepts,

No. Homer refers to the Carians as barbarians but not the Trojans who clearly had no difficulty communicating with their Luwian speaking allies. Lydia was 'barbarian' (e.g. Croesus) in one sense- that of considering it a shame to be seen naked- but in one sense but not so in terms of culture & sophistication. 

the groups to which they refer (also in the realm of reality) being spatially separable.

Not for Herodotus who was born in close proximity to the Lydians with whom he was thoroughly familiar.  

The alien other is negatively marked off

unless he is rich & technologically advanced in which case he is a descendant of Hercules or Poseidon or whatever. Once Greek paideia spread outward, you could have people like Lucian- a Syrian- who excelled in writing in Greek.  

but (and this represented a historical achievement) also recognized as being so. The concepts impute naturalistic constants to the relevant groups, and these constants do not appear to be freely disposable.

They weren't particularly important. It was obvious that some people who originally spoke other languages had become Greek speakers. The opposite too was happening.  

This quickly changes, however. The territorialization of the concepts is followed by their spiritualization,

Neither occurred. There was deterritorialization because of greater mobility- trade, colonization, and folk-wanderings (e.g. the Celtic Galatians who, by the first century BC, were Greek speaking & called 1st century BC, the Celts had become so Hellenized that some Greek writers called them Hellenogalatai). Spiritualization waxed and waned as different cults succeeded each other. 

and this was to be continually and variously repeated in the succeeding history.

Not really. We are merely speaking of periodic attempts to correct linguistic drift & preserve mutual comprehensibility. Something similar happened in India with 'Sanskrit' serving to standardize 'Prakrits'.  

Second, the counterconcepts are related. What the Greeks only suggest becomes central for the Christian-Heathen.

Christianity took over the Jewish notion of 'goyim'- other nations but mass conversion undermined this in both religions.  

The relation of reciprocity is subject to a temporal loading, which determines a future displacement that can go as far as abolishing the Other.

Abolish Death if you are so smart. That's the Other we fear.  

The temporalization of the counterconcepts

occurs because living people age & die. It doesn't lead to anything- unless there is an after-life.  

leads to a shift in the relation of experiential space and the horizon of expectation.

I expect to go to Heaven where I will marry Beyonce & be re-united with Woofy the dog which was sent away to live on a farm when I was ten years old.  

From this arises a dynamic which negates the existing Other, a dynamic hardly known to non-Christian Antiquity.

Hitler's dynamic didn't negate shit. German pedagogues were late in getting the memo.  

Third, the invocation of humanity involves a claim to generality which is so total that no human being appears to be excluded.

Or included. What is done for the good of Humanity tends to be a nuisance from the perspective of any particular human being.  

If counterconcepts that intend to annihilate the Other emerge nevertheless,

like my farts 

they can be characterized by an ideological fungibility which, by definition, departs from earlier concepts.

My farts are the prolegemena to any future metaphysics. Harvard should give me tenure. 

The capacity for differentiating the inner and the outer, which is a property of the first conceptual couple, appears to vanish within the horizon of a unitary mankind.

Anybody can learn Greek or appreciate my farts.  

This capacity does, however, creep into the new formation and leads to consequences that we live with today.

Germans were living with the consequences of having done stupid shit. Yanks were living with the opposite.  

Hellenes and Barbarians “Barbarian” has until the present generally been usable in a neutral scientific language,

maybe in Hitler's Germany. Not elsewhere.  

as well as in a more charged political language. On the other hand, the expression “Hellene,” which had originally defined “Barbarian” negatively, survives only as a historical or specific name for a people.

One is welcome to be a Philhellenist- unless, like me, your philology is flatulence. 

The classical conceptual couple thus belongs to history, though it displays model-like features which recur throughout the course of history.

We will soon see that this was never the case.  

The words existed as independent terms before being arranged as polarities. All non-Greeks were treated as Barbarians

none were. Barbarian just meant a guy who didn't speak Greek or spoke it badly.  

before the Greeks collectively dubbed themselves Hellenes.

 It is believed this happened in the Seventh Century BC at the time of the formation of the Amphictyonic league. Homer spoke of Hellenes as belonging to a small tribe in Thessaly. 

From the sixth to the fourth centuries b.c. the conceptual couple of Hellene and Barbarian became a universal figure of speech which included all of humanity through assignation to one of two spatially separated groups.

You might call someone you didn't like a barbarian. But that continues to be the case. This simply didn't matter very much. Lots of Greeks ended up taking service under a non-Greek King. After about 212 AD, Greeks referred to themselves as Romans. This is why 'Rumi' in Arabic/Persian means Greek speaker of Anatolia while 'Frank' meant Italian, French etc.  

This figure was asymmetrical. Contempt for aliens, stammerers, and the incoherent was expressed by a series of negative epithets degrading the whole of humanity beyond Hellas.

The Greeks weren't Nazi shitheads. Germans were. Koselleck was in the Hitler Youth before volunteering to serve in the Army. 

The Barbarians not only were formally non-Greek, or aliens, but also, as aliens, were defined negatively.

Unless they weren't because they were rich or fighting the common enemy- the Persians.  

They were cowardly, unskillful, gluttonous, brutish, and so on.

Unless, they were handsome, brave, noble etc- e.g. Memnon in the Iliad. He was a darkie from Ethiopia.  

For every definition there was empirical evidence: contact with overseas traders, the mass of foreign slaves, devastation of the homeland by invading Persians, and similar experiences could easily be generalized without seeming to need revision. The Greek intelligentsia was certainly clear-sighted enough to notice deviations from this pattern. For example, Herodotus came to realize the relativity of the concept “Barbarian,”

he was a great 'lover of barbarians'. He depicts the 'freedom loving Persians' as being the first peoples to rationally discuss the sort of government they should give themselves 'after the slaughter of the Magi'. Koselleck is wrong to paint the Greeks as proto-Nazis.  

and Plato criticized the lack of equilibrium in the conceptual couple arising from the divergence of typification and the criterion of division.

He said the thing was absurd. Egypt was a land of many wonders. Much could be learned from it.  

The name of one people—the Hellenes— became the counterconcept for all the rest, who were assembled under a collective name which was simply the negative of Hellene.

This simply isn't true. Before the establishment of the polis, there was a sort of super-tribal league which eroded older clannish antipathies and paved the way for collective action of a type beneficial to the oikumene. But stuff like this was happening in other Iron Age cultures.  

Asymmetry was thus semantically based on this conscious contrast of a specific name with a generic classification. It was certainly possible for the Greeks to. point to features that they had in common and which the aliens lacked: the creation of the polis as a civil constitution opposed to oriental monarchy,

Nonsense! This cretin must have heard of Persepolis or Krokodopolis. If he had read Aristotle, he'd know Carthage was considered a polis. There were plenty of non-Greek city states- e.g. Larissa in Lydia.  

their physical and intellectual education, their language and art, their oracles and cult festivals—these united the Hellenic peoples but also excluded the Barbarians.

unless, like Alexander, they pointed out that their ancestor was Hercules or some such hero and thus they were entitled to participate in the Olympics or other Panhellenic games. 

Thus there was evidence that appeared to confirm the positive image of the Hellenes as mild, educated, free citizens.

Unless they had been enslaved by other Hellenes or barbarians.  

The “barbaric” fashion in which Hellenes actually treated themselves and where their self-image was correct, where it was not, and where it was wishful thinking, was described soberly and sympathetically by Jacob Burckhardt.

Then why rehash the whole matter. The fact is the Greeks weren't Nazi cunts though, no doubt, they had some chauvinistic writers.  

Aside from the relevance or irrelevance of this dualistic evaluation the conceptual couple assumed a semantic structure

translators look for such things. We don't need any such thing when hearing our own mother tongue.  

which made political experience and expectation possible

you don't need to know the language to have this. An Indian who visited Germany in 1938 didn't need to be told that evil shit was going down.  

while at the same time restricting it.

Creative use of language doesn't restrict 'semantic structure'. It expands it. Grammar Nazis can always be told to fuck the fuck off. 

This is apparent in the arguments that were used to justify the differentiation of the two concepts. Plato, with typical seriousness, but certainly with an intention to provoke, reduced the contrast to one of nature. Physei, the Hellenes, are a distinct species that degenerates with increasing intermingling with Barbarians.

Lots of Greeks had gone over to the Persian side.  

From this naturalistic definition he draws the political conclusion that any dispute among Greeks is an argument among brothers (stasis), a civil war, and therefore pathological.

Let's be friends with Sparta. 

A war with Barbarians—polemòs—on the other hand, is justified by nature.

Sadly, some of your smartest generals- like Themistocles who is mentioned in the Gorgias- may end up serving the Persians because they appreciate merit & don't listen to Spartan intriguers.  

Conflicts among Greeks should be conducted in a mild manner and with minimal force, while wars against Barbarians should aim at annihilation.

Both Plato & Aristotle were wrong as Alexander would show.  

This asymmetrical dualism, then, contributes to the creation of a political interior which is shielded from the entirety of the outside world.

But it had no such effect! 

This maxim was given greater edge when Aristotle designated the Barbarians as natural slaves and described the Greeks by contrast as optimally combining strength and intelligence and who, if they were to form a single politeia, would be able to rule over all Barbarians.

The fucker was wrong. Deal with it.  

In support of his view that the Barbarians are natural servants, he cited Euripedes’ verse, according to which the Greeks are destined to rule over the Barbarians, and not vice versa.

The guy was a pedagogue. He was paid to get his students to quote Euripedes rather than just fart in a sullen manner.  

This verse could be taken in many ways: as challenging Alexander to subjugate the Persians, but also as being of use internally.

To get paid a little money.  

Aristotle used the separation of interior and exterior, which had initially characterized the spatial contrast of Hellenes and Barbarians, to give added support to the Interior structure of rule.

There was no such rule. The polis was a fucking shit show- unless it was a Rome.  

The counterconcepts also serve to illuminate a differentiation of domination from top to bottom. Barbarians reduced to their animallike natural properties were suited within a polis to the work of Perioecians, or slaves.

Hitler's dynamite idea was to bring in slave labour to till the fields while German men were sent off to die on the Eastern Front. But slave labour is inefficient & likely to sabotage the submarines or tanks it works on.  

The fact of the matter is that as a culture turns into a civilization, Economics, properly so called, displaces paranoid ranting. Germany, in the inter-war period, went in the reverse direction believing as Thomas Mann had said, during the Great War, that maybe German culture was better than 'Western Civilization'. But, Mann was wrong. Culture thinks Economics doesn't matter. Then it shits the bed. That's not economic at all. Keep doing so & you won't have a bed or a house for that matter. You will simply be a pig wallowing in your own shit. Such would have been the fate of the German pedagogue if the Allies hadn't occupied and partitioned Germany.


Portmore & the Morally overriding anal leprechaun.


Prof. Douglas Portmore asks if 

Moral Reasons (are) Morally Overriding?

If reasons of a certain sort can be partially ordered, then we may say that they can override those ranked below themselves. But only a well defined set has this property. If morality is 'epistemic' (i.e. depends on our knowledge base) then impredicativity is likely to arise. Still, the axiom of regularity is satisfied if there is one disjoint element in the set. But 'pairing' would also be required- i.e. there has to be some unique (by 'extentionality)  set which contains it & one and only one of every other element. It is certainly possible to arbitrarily construct a disjoint element & pairing principle. But there is a moral reason to reject arbitrariness & hope for 'naturality'. That is why, save by some arbitrary 'buck stopping' mechanism (as happens where you have a Supreme Court or Supreme Pontiff or sovereign Legislature) , the answer to Portmore's question must be negative. 

IN THIS PAPER, I present an argument that poses the following dilemma for moral theorists: either (a) reject at least one of three of our most firmly held moral convictions

in which case there is no partial ordering. 'Overriding' is arbitrary 

or (b) reject the view that moral reasons are morally overriding,

i.e. there is no partial ordering 

that is, reject the view that moral reasons always defeat non-moral reasons in the determination of an act’s deontic status (e.g., morally permissible or impermissible).

This is unnecessary. Morality can admit some realm higher than itself- e.g. doing what God tells you to do even if seems immoral (like sacrifice your first born).  

 I then argue that we should opt for the second horn of this dilemma.

Which is what we actually do. What is permitted is one thing. What is commanded is another.  

If I’m right, if non-moral reasons are relevant to determining what is and isn’t morally permissible, then it would seem that moral theorists have their work cut out for them.

Just accept that law can be positive- i.e. a command which creates a superior duty or obligation.  

Not only will they need to determine what the fundamental right-making and wrong-making features of actions are, but they will also need to determine what non-moral reasons are relevant to determining an act’s deontic status.

This isn't particularly hard. Just say 'God' or 'Necessity' or whatever.  

And moral theorists will have to account for how these two very different sorts of reasons (moral and nonmoral) “come together” to determine an act’s deontic status.

Again, this is easily done. The trouble is that there is an arbitrary element to it.  

 By the term “reasons,” I’ll mean “practical reasons,” i.e., reasons for action. As I see it, reasons for action are considerations that can count in favor or against performing an action. Such considerations are not always decisive, as countervailing reasons can defeat them, but in the absence of an undefeated countervailing reason, they are decisive.

Which is fine if menu choice is exogenous. The problem is that what we chose to do, more often than not, is what we think will have some particular effect. In other words, something epistemic interposes itself between the reason and the action.  

Second, I’ll use the phrase “undefeated reason” such that: if a person, P, has an undefeated reason to perform an act, x, it follows that P does not have better reason to perform some other available act.

Which would only be the case if there is a partial ordering. But there isn't really. So, this is 'ex falso quodlibet'. Asserting something false & then logically deducing any old cobblers from it.  

Note that this allows that there are various ways in which a reason can be defeated.

No. There is only one. It is arbitrarily downgraded. This is convenient but not compelling. 

For instance, a reason can be defeated because it is overridden by some other weightier reason,

by an arbitrary action 

and a reason can be defeated because it is trumped, silenced, undermined, excluded, or bracketed by some other reason.

it can also be slut shamed even if it is actually a virgin . Arbitrary actions are like that only.  

3 Note also that I’ve said, “does not have better reason” as opposed to “has as good a reason.”4 The former is broader, allowing for the additional possibility that P’s reason to perform x is undefeated because it is incommensurate with P’s reasons to perform some other available alternative such that there is no fact as to whether P has better reason, worse reason, or just as good a reason to perform x than/as to perform this other alternative. In what follows, I’ll want to distinguish an undefeated reason from a morally undefeated reason. Accordingly, I offer the following definitions: D1 A person, P, has a morally undefeated reason to perform an act, x, if and only if P does not have better moral reason to perform some other available act.

But this depends of P's knowledge base & our knowledge base regarding P & maybe that which is 'common knowledge' in the relevant society.  

 With these definitions in hand, I’m now in a position to say what moral reasons are. Moral reasons are, of course, a proper subset of reasons for action;

A subset must have a well defined extension. It frequently happens that something we do as a matter of habit is discovered to us as having a basis in customary or scriptural morality from an earlier period. Equally, a thing which is considered 'moral' may be discovered to have a purely economic explanation from an earlier period. Why do Jews & Muslims avoid pork? Currently, it is a matter of religious commandment. But some suggest that this convention was adopted because pork uses up more water than chicken. Similarly the Hindu prohibition on beef may be for an agronomic reason. (Indeed, that was the argument used at the time when cow protection was made a Directive Principle in the Indian Constitution). The Indian notion of 'untouchability' may arise from primitive pathogen avoidance theory. It is no accident that progress in allopathic medicine is killing the thing off even in the villages. 

specifically, moral reasons are those reasons that can give rise to a moral ought, where “ought” is understood broadly to express either obligation or advisability.

But 'oughts' arise in purely economic contracts or transactions. You ought to buy low & sell high- otherwise you are likely to go bankrupt. But this is a question of commercial good sense- not morality.  

Thus moral reasons are reasons that can give rise to an act’s being either morally obligatory or morally supererogatory.

But morality may have evolved as a set of heuristics which are actually economic in origin.  

But when does a moral reason give rise to a moral ought?

Surely, that depends on the person? Two people may do the same thing- one for an economic, the other for a moral reason. Indeed, they may justify their action differently to different people. Thus a Jain vegetarian may justify vegetarianism for moral reasons to a fellow Jain, but mention ecological or economic reasons when speaking to a person of a different religion.  

This much is clear: absent either an undefeated or a morally undefeated reason to do something else, there is nothing to prevent the moral reason P has to perform x from being decisive— decisive not only relative to other moral reasons but also relative to reasons generally.

There is a problem of impredicativity here. The antinomian Christian or Malamati Sufi may do the opposite to what is morally right, because transgression causes one to depend more on the gratuitous  grace of God. One may say the higher morality is to defy the lower morality. Obviously, this may cause the more antinomian-than-thou antinomian to become hyper-orthodox so as to show himself higher than the run of the mill antinomian. 

My point is that since there is no 'naturality' in constructing a partially ordered set for deontics, the thing can only be done arbitrarily & in an inconsistent or ad hoc manner. 

And, surely, if P has a morally, and all-things-considered, decisive moral reason to perform x, then P morally ought to perform x—

unless antinomianism is a superior morality.  

that is, P’s performing x is at least morally supererogatory if not morally obligatory. More formally, I offer the following definition: D3 P has a moral reason to perform x if and only if, absent either an undefeated or a morally undefeated reason to perform some other available act, P’s performing x is either morally obligatory or morally supererogatory.

Provided there is no impredicativity in moral reasons- e.g. thinking it immoral to do what is moral so as to depend more fully on God's grace.  

As D3 implies, not only do facts that give rise to an act’s being morally obligatory constitute moral reasons, but so do facts that give rise to an act’s being morally supererogatory.

This assumes that morality can't restrict admissibility or change the valency of what are considered 'de facti'.  Anglo Saxon jurisdictions, in theory, separate out determinations of fact to Juries and determinations of Law to Judges. But Judges can direct juries to disregard certain facts or to deem them to have a different valency to what they might 'naturally' consider them to be. 

So, for instance, a moral theory that inextricably ties moral obligations to rights will still count the fact that your performing x will benefit someone who has no right to your beneficence as a moral reason for you to perform x if the theory holds that your benefiting someone who has no right to your beneficence is supererogatory (even if not obligatory).

If morality is epistemic- i.e. changes as the knowledge base changes- then what is supererogatory is a movable feast.  

Thus there are two types of facts

by reason of some arbitrary decision re admissibility 

that constitute moral reasons,

Facts don't constitute reasons. We may say 'some facts are relevant (admissible) others aren't'. 

and this implies that there are two types of moral reasons: those that give rise to moral obligations when they are both morally and all-things-considered decisive dont'.

Sadly nobody can attain the 'all-things-considered' (omniscient Benthamite Planner's) perspective. 

(There is a (very real possibility that non-moral reasons might be relevant to the determination of an act’s deontic status. 

If we evolved on an uncertain fitness landscape then it is likely that morality 'evolved'. But, for robustness, it is likely that there will be a non-moral basis on which to come to the same conclusion. Religious thinker have grappled with the conundrum that there is always a just as good non-moral reason to do what morality counsels. 'It is not from the benevolence of the butcher, the brewer, or the baker, that we expect our dinner, but from their regard to their own interest.'

Note that this allows for the possibility that a moral reason gives rise to a moral ought whenever a morally undefeated reason is absent, for it may be that what one morally ought to do is a function of solely moral reasons.

This would be true of purely ritual actions which are known to have no effect on anything which matters. This is the 'Purva Mimamsa' view. Vedic ritualism is moral precisely because it has not utilitarian value whatsoever. Sadly, saying this, reduces the incentive to stick with orthopraxy.                       

Nevertheless, even if this is the case, it will still be true to say that a moral reason gives rise to a moral ought absent either an undefeated or a morally undefeated reason to act otherwise.

Who can say such a reason does not exist? The fact that we can't think of it, at this moment, doesn't mean it doesn't exist. Under Knightian Uncertainty, we choose a 'regret minimizing' strategy- i.e. err on the side of caution some of the time while also indulging in FOMO (fear of missing out). If everybody is doing it, you may regret not getting with the program. The truth is, a lot of morality & ethics is about Tardean Mimetics- i.e. imitating what the superior does or is supposed to do.  

For if a moral reason to perform x gives rise to x’s being morally obligatory/supererogatory if there isn’t a morally undefeated reason to do something else, then it will also give rise to x’s being morally obligatory/supererogatory if there is neither an undefeated nor a morally undefeated reason to do something else.

Because arbitrary actions have that quality. They lack 'nautrality'- i.e. aren't based on all relevant 'reasons'.  

Note also that D3 is compatible with a particularist conception of moral reasons, where certain facts can be relevant

but are they discoverable in a canonical manner or are they arbitrarily stipulated?  

to how one morally ought to act on one occasion but not another and can even count in favor of performing an action on one occasion but against performing that action on another.

Or just doing what you like. 

Even on this particularist conception, it will still be true to say that some facts are capable of making a difference to how one morally ought to act and that some are not.

Truth does not matter. Informativity does. The sentence given above is non-informative.  

 Accordingly, I offer the following distinction and corresponding definitions: D4 P has a deontic moral reason to perform x if and only if, absent either an undefeated or a morally undefeated reason to perform some other available act, P’s performing x is morally obligatory.

This begs the question as to whether we can distinguish a 'deontic moral reason' in a canonical or non-arbitrary way. Otherwise D4 is non informative. It is like saying 'we have a leprechaun up our anus if no one can tell what is or isn't a leprechaun. Also, anything at all can be our anus.  

D5 P has a non-deontic moral reason to perform x if and only if, absent either an undefeated or a morally undefeated reason to perform some other available act, P’s performing x is not morally obligatory, but merely morally supererogatory.

This assumes that actions are dictated by 'reasons' of various sorts. We may make this arbitrary stipulation but we may equally arbitrarily speak of what the invisible leprechaun up our anus is making us do.  

So, on the rights-based theory described above, the fact that your performing x will benefit someone who has no right to your beneficence would constitute a non-deontic moral reason for you to perform x, whereas, on utilitarianism, the fact your performing x will benefit someone (even yourself) constitutes a deontic moral reason for you to perform x.

But what is deontic for you (i.e. what you consider to be your duty) is up to you. You may feel it your duty to attribute all your actions- or that of Donald Trump- to invisible leprechauns lodged in the rectum of Peter Mandelson.  

Lastly, I’ll define a moral option as follows: D6 P has a moral option to perform either x or y if and only if it is both morally permissible for P to perform x and morally permissible for P to perform y. 2.

& if the invisible leprechaun lodged in Mandelson's anus brought about this situation.  

The argument With these definitions in hand, we’re now in a position to consider what I take to be a very troubling argument, which I present in standard form below. Assume that the variable “P” ranges over agents who must choose between acting so as to secure a considerable benefit for themselves and acting so as to secure a slightly more considerable benefit for some stranger.

or because such is the invisible of Mandelson's anal leprechaun.  

Let’s call the former “s” since it’s a self-regarding act and the latter “o” since it’s an other-regarding act.

But it is the self which decides the issue. The fact that I fart noisily so as to show solidarity with Hamas doesn't stop people think I do it because I like stinking up the room.  

Assume that there are no other morally relevant facts. So, for instance, assume that whatever it is that P would be doing were she to perform s, it would not entail breaking a promise, causing someone harm, or anything of the sort.

This is like assuming Mandelson's anal leprechaun is the only efficient cause. It is arbitrary. It is also non-informative. The fact is we can never be sure our actions don't cause harm.  

And assume, for the sake of simplicity, that s and o are the only available options and that they are mutually exclusive.

You are assuming there is no Knightian Uncertainty. All possible states of the world are known. Evolution must be wrong. So must Cosmology & Geology etc. All is as Mandelson's invisible anal leprechaun wills it.  

What is the practical consequence for ethics of Portmore's argument. 

 (We) should be highly suspicious of many people’s untutored intuition that it is permissible for those who enjoy the kind of affluence that is so common in industrialized nations to spend large portions of their surplus income on luxury items

thus creating jobs in the luxury sector. Moreover, as economies of scope & scale become available, luxuries turn into necessities- stuff like tooth paste & soap were once (in India) considered luxuries & subject to heavy taxes. This was not a smart economic policy.  

when there are so many children in developing countries who are dying easily preventable deaths.

They only became preventable because the rich had the luxury of financing expensive medical research which initially was only available to them.  

But the fact that some of our commonsense moral intuitions seem suspect upon careful reflection

Posmore uses the phrase 'careful reflection' in the spirit of pure farce.  

casts no doubt on the idea that our moral theories should comport with the moral convictions we have after careful reflection.

on orders from an invisible anal leprechaun- right?  

Thus it’s important to note that neither Singer’s arguments nor Unger’s arguments speak against our considered moral conviction that forgoing a benefit for oneself in order to provide someone else with an only slightly larger benefit is morally optional, not morally required.

It is irrelevant if we are useless tossers teaching shite to shitheads.  

Up to this point, I’ve merely asserted, not argued, that P2, P4, and P6 represent three of our most firmly held moral convictions.

Only in the sense that faith in an omnipotent invisible anal leprechaun is part & parcel of some nutter's moral convictions.  Indeed to deny such is the case is homophobic & reveals a bigotry against very short Irish people. 

 To illustrate, let’s suppose that the specifics are as follows. P is currently accessing her savings account via the Internet, and she is about to transfer the entire balance to her escrow company so as to purchase her dream home. She can do so by clicking on button A. However, there’s an alternative. By clicking on button B instead, her savings will be transferred not to her escrow company, but to some stranger who will benefit slightly more from the money than she would.

John Maynard Smith showed why 'bourgeois strategies' based on 'uncorrelated asymmetries' (e.g. the money in my savings account is mine & is intended to help me) is 'eusocial'- i.e. everybody benefits more if they are followed. The fact is a society where it is normative to click B will be as poor as shit. It won't be using scarce resources efficiently. This doesn't mean that there isn't a collective action problem to do with assisting the worst off. But that is a matter of economics & politics- i.e. 'ways & means'- not morality as such.  

Clearly, given the tremendous sacrifice involved, our considered moral conviction is that P is not morally required to perform o— that is, P is not morally required to click on button B. But it is equally clear that the fact that her doing so would provide the stranger with a considerable benefit constitutes a deontic moral reason for her to click on button B.

It isn't deontic. It is consequentialist.  

Indeed, were it not for the costs involved, she would be required to click on button B.

If she is a consequentialist of a particular sort.  

To see this, consider the following variant on the above case. In this case, P can transfer the money to her escrow company by clicking on either button A or button B, and, in this case, a very rich man has agreed to transfer an equivalent sum of his own money to the stranger if, and only if, she clicks on button B. So, in either case, she’ll get her dream home, but, by clicking on button B, she’ll also secure a considerable benefit for the stranger.

So, this is a 'Newcombe problem'.  Believe some shite if that is helpful to you. 

Assume that there are no other relevant facts.  Assume that in this case she’ll still have the small apartment that she’s been renting to come home to.  Surely, in this case, P is morally required to click on button B, for there is no reason why she shouldn’t do so. By clicking on button B, she can purchase her dream home while also providing a considerable benefit for the stranger, and she can do so at no cost to herself, at minimal cost to the rich man (who, given the diminishing marginal utility of money, has more money than he can effectively use to benefit himself), and at absolutely no cost to anyone else. If you think that beneficence is only required when the would-be beneficiary is below a certain threshold of well-being, then assume that both you and the stranger are below that threshold. Given that we think that the reason P has to click on button B gives rise to a moral requirement in the absence of either an undefeated or a morally undefeated reason to do otherwise, we must conclude that it is a deontic moral reason.

We don't have to conclude shit. Alternatively, we can conclude any old shit if such is the will of our invisible anal leprechaun.  

All moral reasons must be either deontic or non-deontic,

Nonsense! They may be concerned with changing one's own ethos or doing what is pleasing to the invisible anal leprechaun.  

and since this moral reason is the kind of moral reason that can give rise to a moral obligation, it must be the former.

No. The lady may want to change what she is for herself- i.e. to have a different ethos. Thinking she is giving away her hard earned money is her first step to coming out as a Lesbian who wants to live in an agrarian commune rather than work in Corporate Finance.  

If, to the contrary, P’s reason to click on button B were a non-deontic moral reason, it could not generate a moral requirement to do so.

She might disagree. She could say 'Mum, you don't understand. I felt I had to click B. It was like... I'd be killing a baby if I didn't. Morally, I could not do otherwise. Also, I don't like cocks. Vaginas are magical. I shall devote my life to kissing them.'  

Portmore's paper is based on arbitrary ipse dixit assertions or stipulations. But anybody can come up with such things even without appealing to an invisible anal leprechaun. 

... I’ve stipulated from the start that the choice between benefiting oneself and benefiting the stranger is to be a mutually exclusive one.

More importantly, Portmore is assuming no Knightian Uncertainty. All states of the world are distinguishable & known in advance- i.e. Evolution is a lie.  

And, as I’ve stipulated, the choice between s or o is between furthering one’s own interests and sacrificing those interests for the sake of doing more to promote the impersonal good. Therefore, by stipulation, o must be a self-sacrificing act, and so the ethical egoist must consider o to be morally impermissible. 

Nope. There may be a greater reputational benefit. Alternatively, there may be a future state of the world where not having any money is better than being a bougie property owner.     

Portmore's conclusion is

 we must accept, contrary to the philosophical orthodoxy, that moral reasons are not the only reasons relevant to the determination of an acts deontic status.

 Sadly, this conclusion is based on arbitrary & foolish stipulations. Speaking generally, Societies possess Courts of Law (or, at the very least, Public Opinion) which determine deontic status. This may be 'buck-stopped' in the short run, but mutable in the medium to long term. Of course, any one at all can make any type of deontic claim (e.g. my self-imposed obligation to fart noisily to express solidarity with Hamas). One may as well ascribe the thing to the actions of an invisible anal leprechaun as pretend that logical analysis can add informativity to what is merely arbitrary- though, in certain cases, useful enough to solve coordination or discoordination problems encountered in collective action problems. 

One final point. Godel's later work shows (it seems to me) that you have to have an 'absolute proof' or a 'divine axiom' to have an independent logic for a particular discourse. Anal-tickle philosophy failed to monitor developments in mathematical logic over the course of the late Sixties & Seventies with the result that it turned into a cul de sac for credentialized cretins. 


Saturday, 18 April 2026

Judith Butler on Laclau

The following passage from a short essay by Judith Butler won the 1998 prize for 'the most stylistically lamentable passages found in scholarly books and articles"

The move from a structuralist account in which capital is understood to structure social relations in relatively homologous ways to a view of hegemony in which power relations are subject to repetition, convergence, and rearticulation brought the question of temporality into the thinking of structure, and marked a shift from a form of Althusserian theory that takes structural totalities as theoretical objects to one in which the insights into the contingent possibility of structure inaugurate a renewed conception of hegemony as bound up with the contingent sites and strategies of the rearticulation of power."

So there is a move from an account of x  to a view of y and this was marked by a shift from z to...what?

A conception of y. But a conception is the same thing as a view.  So, the move from x to y was the same as the shift from z to y. How can we be sure this is the case? Because Butler says it was 'marked' by it.

But this is like saying my move from London to Glasgow was marked by my shifting from England's largest city to Scotland's largest city. One might say this is verbose but still meaningful. What would be crazy is saying 'my move from London to London was marked by shifting from London to London'. But that is what Butler is doing. Marxian Capital is dynamic. It isn't a 'steady state' or one period economy. Structuring is an activity. It is temporal. Althusserian 'homology' just means 'similarity'  with relative autonomy rather than something deterministic. Althusser says a structural totality can't be a theoretical object because of 'interpellation'. We might say the 'intension' 'structural totality' doesn't have a well-defined extension because of impredicativity. Butler may have thought there was some hiatus valde deflendum between Althusser & Gramsci- but Althusser was acknowledging his debt to Gramsci more & more before he went totally nuts & killed his own wife. Moreover a 'view of hegemony' is the same as a 'conception' of it. As for temporality, it is baked into all Marxist theories because Marx was concerned with 'laws of motion'- i.e. dynamics. 

Thus Butler's sentence features both ignorance, stupidity, and bad syntax. To be fair, it featured in a short piece grandiloquently titled 'Further Reflections on Conversations of Our Time'


The exchange that Ernesto Laclau

a nitwit about whom I have written elsewhere

and I conducted through e-mail last year at this time begins a conversation that I expect will continue. And I suppose I would like to use this “supplementary” reflection to think about what makes such a conversation possible,

Email. Also both Laclau & Butler had shit for brains & taught worthless shite.  

and what possibilities might emerge from such a conversation.

What emerged was one of the worst sentences in the English language.  


First of all, I think that I was drawn to the work of Laclau and Mouffe

not an 'Essex girl' but a founder of the even stupider 'Essex School'  

when I began to read Hegemony and Socialist Strategy and realized that I had found a set of Marxist thinkers for whom discourse was not merely a representation of preexisting social and historical realities, but was also constitutive of the field of the social and of history.

In which case saying 'Capitalism is turning into a cat' would cause it to turn into a cat. That would drive the Boss Class bananas.  

The second moment came when I realized that central to the notion of articulation, appropriated from Gramsci, was the notion of rearticulation.

Say 'Capitalism is a cat' again and again. That way it will remain a cat. The fucking oligarchs will have kittens.  

As a temporally dynamic and relatively unpredictable play of forces, hegemony had been cast by both Laclau and Mouffe as an alternative to forms of static structuralism that tend to construe contemporary social forms as timeless totalities.

But the Whig theory of History or the Marxist theory of History or even the Eschatological Christian or Islamist view of History is dynamic. No polity in the world thinks 'timeless totalities' exist though, no doubt, you might say Commies are stuck with a silly nineteenth century theory or that Biden or Trump are living in the past when WASP men ruled the world. 

I read in Laclau and Mouffe the political transcription of Derrida’s “Structure, Sign, and Play”: a structure gains its status as a structure, its structurality, only through its repeated reinstatement.

Derrida was saying we have to use stuff we inherited but are creative bricoleurs in the say we use it. His lecture was post-structural. If a structure is temporal (i.e. has dynamics) then both repetition & 'recovery of origins' is impossible. Thus, even if the British or Japanese monarchy faithfully repeats all medieval ceremonies, the structure of medieval society won't be re-imposed. The context was the French Communist Party's losing touch with students & intellectuals back in the mid-Sixties. Rigidly deterministic 'Vulgar Marxism' was passe. 

The dependency of that structure on its reinstatement

is Idealism. It isn't Dialectical Materialism. If you repeatedly reconceive yourself as a cat you don't become or remain a cat- unless you are a fucking cat.  

means that the very possibility of structure depends on a reiteration that is in no sense determined fully in advance,

e.g. when you start off meaning to say 'I'm a cat' but end up saying 'I am elderly South Indian man and not a cat at all! Boo!'  

that for structure, and social structure as a result, to become possible, there must first be a contingent repetition at its basis.

If women didn't keep reconceiving themselves as women, they will turn into men- unless they become cats or cabbages.  

Moreover, for some social formation to appear as structured is for it to have covered over in some way the contingency of its own installation.

Very true. The nuclear family appears structured. There's Mummy & there's Daddy & there's your little sister & your big brother & Woofy the dog, What nobody tells you is that this structure was installed by the fucking Phone Company! I'm actually a cat and live on Uranus.  

The theoretical rearticulation of structure as hegemony marked the work of Laclau and Mouffe as consequentially poststructuralist and offered perhaps the most important link between politics and poststructuralism in recent years (along with the work of Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak).

Laclau was from Argentina. He & Mouffe were based in Essex. Spivak was from India & lived in America. They had zero political importance. Structuralism & post-structuralism may have had some significance so long as the French Communist Party could command at least 20 percent of votes. By 1983, its share fell to 15 percent & continued to fall. Then Gorby tanked the Soviet Union & only the most utterly useless of academics bothered with Marxian shite. 

The move from a structuralist account in which capital is understood to structure social relations in relatively homologous ways to a view of hegemony in which power relations are subject to repetition, convergence, and rearticulation brought the question of temporality into the thinking of structure, and marked a shift from a form of Althusserian theory that takes structural totalities as theoretical objects to one in which the insights into the contingent possibility of structure inaugurate a renewed conception of hegemony as bound up with the contingent sites and strategies of the rearticulation of power.

To be fair, Laclau & Mouffe were exactly as stupid and ignorant as the above suggests.  

It is, of course, impossible in this context to reconstruct the particular way in which Derrida’s work and Foucault’s work converge in the reconceptualization of hegemony that Laclau and Mouffe have offered.

Because they weren't quite as stupid & ignorant as that gormless pair.  

One of the points, however, that became most salient for me is the reintroduction of temporality and, indeed, of futurity into the thinking of social formations.

From which they have never been absent. There was a time when some believed that 'the fixed stars' represented a timeless realm. Change & decay were confined to the sublunary sphere. But that was very long ago.