Tuesday, 28 April 2026

Why Justice matters & Sen does not

Why does justice matter? The simple answer is that people can trust each other and even trust themselves more when they live in a just society. This means many more mutually beneficial transactions and relationships exist while there is less 'free riding' when it comes to public goods. Econ theory deals with this under the rubric of the theory of externalities, preference revelation, incomplete contract theory, mechanism design, fair division, concurrency etc.

Another answer is that justice in cuddly and sweet. Injustice is repugnant and yucky. This lines up notions of merit goods and demerit goods and not saying mean things about fat people. Also, as the Bible says, if you kids make fun of a baldie like me, bears will come and eat you. 

A theory of Justice does not have to define Justice but it does have to have a clear idea of what constitutes injustice. This can't just be stuff which is deplorable in itself like the fact that people get old and then they die. It has to be the case that some one did something bad to someone else or failed to do something good for them which they were obliged to do. You could certainly say, 'it's unfair that Rich peeps got money and us poor people don't got none.' But your proposal to kill the rich and take their money isn't a theory of Justice. It may be a part of an ideology or a political strategy or an economic plan. The problem is, that sort of plan can get you killed.

Suppose there are laws which say the Government must prevent people from getting old or dying, though the law would be involved, Justice would not. I don't dispute that the State has a duty to chop our heads off and shove them up our poopers while chanting Satanic incantations so that we call get resurrected as immortal beings but this is a religious matter with political overtones. Justice however requires that everybody else gets their head chopped off before me because I had asthma as a kid and still suffer from dandruff. 

Substantive outcomes are one thing- e.g. everybody getting their head chopped off so as to be resurrected- but procedures to achieve those outcomes may be just or unjust. Consider Djikstra's dining philosophers. They have agreed where to sit and what they will have to eat and drink. However, there is a shortage of spoons and so they need to devise a rule for cutlery sharing. It turns out there is no 'canonical' rule which everybody would agree to. It is a mathematical fact that they will starve to death- even if they each live for one trillion years- if they first try to find an equitable rule for cutlery sharing. This is known as the 'concurrency' or 'race hazard' problem.  

Around the same time as Djikstra's work was becoming known, Kuhn propounded the 'no neutral algorithm' thesis. Essentially, if you have more than one policy objective then there is no 'neutral' or 'canonical' or 'natural' way to settle on a algorithm (i.e. rule or deterministic decision procedure) to choose the policy instrument. McKelvey's Chaos theorem makes essentially the same point. In a multi-dimensional decision space 'agenda control' can settle on any outcome however bad. But all this is obvious. The number of policy instruments should be at least equal to the number of policy objectives. You may get lucky and kill two birds with one stone. But you can't do environmental protection with that stone. You can only kill a bird for your dinner. True, you can decide to kill older birds or ones which are 'invasive' or something of that sort. But that involves restricting stone throwing. It is a separate problem which has to be dealt with separately. 

The above considerations are all blindingly obvious. They don't bother us much in real life because  two types of 'uncorrelated symmetries' obtain-

1)  what went before in our own society which we know works up to a point, and

2)  what is working well in a society which used to be like ours but is now better off because of some institutional change they have made. We can't choose between abstract conceptions which have no 'concrete model' because of 'value plurality'- i.e. absent any empirical evidence, we can't say which value matters more in that it must be lexically preferenced before any value can be realized- e.g. if we have nothing to eat we won't value Beauty- but we can choose between concrete models which we know are feasible because at least we know making the choice won't prevent us from being alive.

Obviously, if you are really itching to kill some particular group of peeps and to grab their cool stuff, you could have a revolutionary theory of justice. Sen admits this-

To be sure, members of any polity can imagine how a gigantic and totally comprehensive reorganization might be brought about, moving them at one go to the ideal of a fully just society.

In Sen's ancestral East Bengal, this involved killing or chasing away Hindus like himself.  Whatever happens in Mamta's Bengal, Sen should be safe enough in Amrika. 

A no-nonsense transcendental theory can serve, in this sense, as something like the grand revolutionary’s ‘one-shot handbook’. But that marvellously radical handbook would not be much invoked in the actual debates on justice in which we are ever engaged.

Why not? Soviet Jurisprudence was based on such a handbook. The rule was simple. Look at the class origin of the two people involved in a dispute. Kill the more bourgeois one. 

Anglo Saxon jurisprudence tended to go the other way. The guy with deeper pockets and better lawyers wins. But nobody gets killed. Sad.  

Questions on how to reduce the manifold injustices that characterize the world tend to define the domain of application of the analysis of justice;

Nope. The domain of application of justice begins where that of policy leaves off. There is a doctrine of 'political question' or 'executive privilege'. Policy may tackle injustice in diverse ways one of which is passing laws on the basis of which people can approach the courts.  

the jump to transcendental perfection does not belong there.

But it can do in policy. There have been Revolutionary regimes which applied 'one-shot handbooks'. They may also have had 'Revolutionary Courts' to supplement the activities of the apparatchiks.  

It is also worth noting here the general analytical point, already noted in the Introduction, that the diagnosis of injustice does not demand a unique identification of ‘the just society’,

nor does it involve anything else. I'm going bald. That's unjust! You may say 'it is your karmic punishment for making fun of baldies in a previous life.' My reply is 'karma is unjust! Fuck you karma! Fucky you very much!' 

On the other hand, there is always some unique identification of 'the just society' which can be assigned to any particular 'diagnosis of injustice'. Clearly, a just society would do genetic engineering and perform interventions such that people like myself would be spared the dreadful fate of male pattern baldness. Also our dicks would be bigger.

since a univocal diagnosis of the deficiency of a society with, say, large-scale hunger, or widespread illiteracy, or rampant medical neglect, can go with very different identifications of perfectly just social arrangements in other respects.

But this is the same type of injustice as arises when some men go bald. Only if there is an easily available remedy which is being callously or maliciously withheld does an 'injustice' arise. A society where everybody is starving may have perfectly just social arrangements. Indeed, that might be the problem. Less Justice, more food should be their motto.  

The fact is Sen has no 'transcendental' - i.e. a priori- reason for saying things which he doesn't like (e.g. widespread illiteracy) are unjust. There was a time when everybody was illiterate because writing hadn't been invented. How could there be an a priori reason for concluding the thing was a 'manifest injustice'? The day may come when we have rocket ships which can take us to other Galaxies. Do we really suffer a 'manifest injustice' because they are not currently available? 

Saying 'I wish we had x' does not mean x is required for Justice to prevail. 

Even if we think of transcendence not in the gradeless terms of ‘right’ social arrangements, but in the graded terms of the ‘best’ social arrangements,

We would have done nothing meaningful. Right means best means optimal means totes cool in this context.  

the identification of the best does not, in itself, tell us much about the full grading, such as how to compare two non-best alternatives,

Only if we don't want it to. The thing is easy enough in practice. We agree I should marry Beyonce coz she be hot and has lots of money. Sadly, my choice is between an elderly Russian hooker who wants a British passport because she does not like Putin and an equally elderly Japanese hooker who believes she is the reincarnation of Sada Abe. She too wants a British passport but only because she thinks she can become the Leader of the Conservative Party by killing me and slicing off my penis and carrying it around with her till the Daily Mail backs her Prime Ministerial ambitions. In this case, it is obvious that I should plump for the Russian hooker. Fuck. I left it too late. The lady has set her cap on Rahul Baba. 

nor does it specify a unique ranking with respect to which the best stands at the pinnacle; indeed, the same best may go with a great many different rankings at the same pinnacle.

Or not, if that's how we want things.  Pareto's revolution was to show utility was immeasurable. He proposed to replace it with ophelimity which means the same thing in Greek. One may simply speak of 'profit' or the Von Neumann 'payoff' vector. 

Pareto's point is that there is no pinnacle. There are merely rankings for specific purposes. If you have more than one purpose, there is no non-arbitrary ranking. But, that's cool coz uncorrelated asymmetries obtain and so the bourgeois strategy- which is eusocial in a certain sense- will always have some arbitrary element e.g. who owns what or which 'value' must be lexically preferenced for survival. Thus, at times, discourse on justice must be interrupted because it is vital to survival to quit the room because I just farted. At other times, it may be vital to discourse on justice because the alternative is listening to me talk about my love life. 

To consider an analogy used earlier, the fact that a person regards the Mona Lisa as the best picture in the world does not reveal how she would rank a Picasso against a Van Gogh.

Yes it does. She may say different but fuck should we listen to her for? My point is that mathematical considerations of 'uniqueness' or 'canonicity' or 'naturality' etc. are themselves arbitrary. There is no Archimedian point from which category theory can itself become categorical. A person may say 'this choice sequence' is mine but our choice sequence can assign a different choice sequence to them. That person may choose to adopt the one we propose. Only if we are considering a bunch of overlapping law-less choice sequences could we even dream of saying any ranking is 'informative'. But who is to say what is or isn't a law-less choice sequence? If the thing is 'law-like' then it is defeasible- i.e. could be improved in some non-deterministic way. 

It is quite possible that when I become a gazillionaire, I get the best Art expert to buy me a bunch of pictures. I like Moaning Liza and mention Pickarso. The expert says 'No. You want Van Gogh and Klimt. Also you iz Gay. Stop pretending. ' I discover soon enough that the dude is right. 

The search for transcendental justice can be an engaging intellectual exercise in itself,

if you find wanking too cognitively challenging- sure.  

but –irrespective of whether we think of transcendence in terms of the gradeless ‘right’

Which is what we do when we think our Mummy is the bestest Mumsy-Wumsy in the World.  

or in the framework of the graded ‘best’ – it does not tell us much about the comparative merits of different societal arrangements.

Because nothing tells us much save by arbitrary stipulation or by reason of a pre-existing 'uncorrelated asymmetry'.

Consider the following. It was published 13 years ago as the description of a book titled 'Against Injustice- the new Economics of Amartya Sen.' Has that new Economics actually achieved any victory 'against injustice'? Did it end the unjust aspects of the 'war on terror'? Did it combat the unjust aspects of Obama or Europe's or Japan's plan of recovery from the financial crash? Was it worthwhile in any way whatsoever? 

Traditional theories of justice as formulated by political philosophers, jurists and economists have all tended to see injustice as simply a breach of justice, a breakdown of the normal order.

Those traditional theories were embodied in institutions which worked well enough. The police did catch criminals and judges did send them to jail. What about Sen-tentious shite? Did it punish anybody or promote any efficacious remedy to rights' violations? 

 Amartya Sen's work acts as a corrective to this tradition by arguing that we can recognise patent injustices, and come to a reasoned agreement about the need to remedy them, without reference to an explicit theory of justice.

This is precisely what failed to happen. There was no reasoned agreement about anything whatsoever. Climate change, Terrorism, Human Rights, Democracy, Sovereign Debt- in every case, what had appeared to be an evolving consensus dissolved. Obama had become President, but there was a 'Birther' backlash. The UK had got a Supreme Court to comply with EU policy but the country was already on the road to Brexit. In India, Manmohan had been re-elected. Rahul was bound to succeed him. In Sen's West Bengal, the Left Front appeared unassailable. Sen thought 'there were no victors in Singur'. He was a false prophet. There was a victor. It was Mamta. The Communists can't get even a single seat in the Legislative Assembly. The BJP is now the biggest opposition party there. All the things that Sen thought would arise from 'reasoned agreement' proved false. 


 Against Injustice brings together distinguished academics from a variety of different fields - including economics, law, philosophy and anthropology -

but nobody thinks they are distinguished for anything other than mindless coprophagy any more. 

 to explore the ideas underlying Sen's critique of traditional approaches to injustice. The centrepiece of the book is the first chapter by Sen in which he outlines his conception of the relationship between economics, ethics and law. 

There already was a 'Law & Econ' school- that of Coase and Posner and Becker- which continued to do well. But nothing came of Sen's 'capabilities' because the thing was vacuous. Rights must have incentive compatible remedies under a bond of law. Everybody agreeing that every poor person must be provided with a butler and a super-yacht doesn't actually help anyone. 

To be fair, Sen was promoted as a voice from the Turd world. He was a spectere at the feast of Enlightenment Reason and Utilitarian Affluence. 

In a review published by the Carnegie Council he is presented as a way to get from Rawlsian Justice to a 'Rules based Global Order'. 
the international dimension of justice, which for Rawls cannot involve redistributive social justice, (is) a conclusion his critics regard as perverse. If inequalities within societies need to be justified,

they don't, if is obvious that without those inequalities there would be mass emigration of the talented or mass immigration of the parasitic or criminal 

surely the far greater inequalities that exist between societies cannot be ignored.

Those inequalities are not ignored. You look around and see a country doing better than your own and try to emulate it. You may hire a stupid Bengali but only so as to laugh at the little man when he tries to teach you economics as if it weren't common knowledge that his people are all starving to death or getting ethnically cleansed by better fed Muslims.  

Rawls responded to such criticisms in an important partial revision to his theory, The Law of Peoples. His definition of a "people'' requires that it have a moral nature and political institutions; he argues that there is no "global people'' and therefore no basis for global redistributive justice. His critics have not been convinced.

But those critics did not split their pay-check with the custodial staff or even their own teaching assistants. They only pretended to be into 'redistributive justice' so as to get paid.  


Sen is also much engaged by the problem of global justice,

He was secretly robbing the rich countries so as to feed his own starving people. Batman caught him but let him go after Superman intervened with an impassioned speech about the true meaning of 'Truth, Justice, and the American Way.'  

but he sees this as symptomatic of much wider problems with Rawls's project, and The Idea of Justice can be understood as an attempt to respond to these wider problems. Indeed, the book almost takes the form of an implicit dialogue with Rawls and the Rawlsians, and it is worth noting that Sen has dedicated this work to John Rawls.

Rawls was White and came from a rich country to which Sen eagerly immigrated to so as to earn more money.  


To follow Sen's argument it is necessary to spend a little time setting out the shape of the Rawlsian project. The starting point is that whereas much political philosophy in the mid-twentieth century was concerned with language and the meaning and use of words, Rawls harked back to an older tradition by focusing on substance.

That older tradition was Racist. It said that Indians and Africans were savages. No crime is committed when a more advanced people exterminate or enslave savages. Even Bertrand Russell believed that a war against less developed people was always just. However, by the mid-Fifties- when Sen was at Cambridge- he said the following on the BBC-

The acquisition of the Western hemisphere by white men was one of the causes of the supremacy in world affairs which they enjoyed for some centuries. They can hardly recover this supremacy by new colonizing efforts after the old pattern, because there are no longer large regions that are empty or nearly empty awaiting the coming of vigorous and enterprising men. In quite recent times the words “colonial” and “colonialism” have acquired new meanings. They are now habitually used to denote regions where the governing class is white but not Russian, and the bulk of the population is of some non-white race. Western ideals of freedom have been propagated throughout the world by Western instructors and have produced an unwillingness to submit to alien domination which in former times was either non-existent or very much weaker.

Naughty, naughty Mr. Nehru.  If only your Daddy hadn't sent you to Harrow, India wouldn't have turned into such a shithole. 

Although only military conquest compelled Gaul to become part of the Roman Empire, its population, after conquest, acquiesced completely and did not welcome the separation from Rome that came in the fifth century.

What is the sub-text here? Gauls were Celts. They were White. Whites naturally emulate the superior culture. Darkies get a bit of education and then get rid of their White masters with the result that they soon revert to cannibalism.  

National independence, which has become an obstacle to colonization, seems to modern men a natural human aspiration, but it is, in fact, very modern and largely a product of education.

In darkies. Whites naturally get civilized when they come in contact with a more developed type of White. Darkies may get a bit of education which turns them against their White masters but the result is horrible.  

If the human race is to survive, nationalism will have to come to terms with a new ideal—namely, internationalism. I do not see how this new ideal, which will concede to each nation internal autonomy, but not freedom for external aggression, can be reconciled with the formation of new colonies, because empty regions can no longer be found. Perhaps the Antarctic continent will be made habitable, and this might prove an exception, but I think it is the only one

Russell was clearly bat-shit crazy. But he did represent the grand Whig enlightenment tradition.  

Throughout history colonies have been among the most powerful agents for the spread of the arts and science and ways of life that constitute civilization.

Ivy League Universities must take over that role.  Otherwise them darkies will eat us. 

For the future, it seems that mankind will have to learn to do without this ancient and well-tried method.

Coz darkies got a bit of education and turned on their just and proper masters.  

I think mankind will have to depend, not upon force or domination, but upon the inherent attractiveness of a civilized way of life.

As opposed to sex, drugs and rock and roll.  

The Romans when they overcame the Greeks were at a much lower level of civilization than those whom they defeated,

not really. The Greeks had a more ornate literary culture and, thanks to Alexander, had created a big Empire which however had disintegrated. Still, there were some very luxurious Hellenistic courts where Kings married their sisters and then the sisters fucked any virile invader who would kill off their hubby-brother or Uncle-Daddy.  

but they found Greek civilization so attractive that, from a cultural standpoint, it was the Greeks who were the victors.

In Byzantium- sure. Then the fucking Muslims turned up. Sad. Still, the Teutonic races did well out of the Western Empire.  

Those among us who value culture and a humane way of life must school ourselves to learn from the Greeks rather than from the Romans.

More pederasty, less of this business of building aqueducts.   

If this is to be done successfully, we shall have to eliminate those harsher features of our way of life which have repelled many alien nations with whom we have had contact.

Stop lynching uppity  niggers. They are too stupid to understand it is for their own good. Why not make them teach Social Choice theory instead? Since they are too stupid to understand Russel's paradox, they will waste their lives while we have a good laugh at them.  

Missionary and soldier have hitherto played equal parts in the diffusion of civilization. For the future, it must be the missionary—taking this term in a large sense—who will alone be able to carry on the work.

This is how Sen was seen. He had been taken to Cambridge and converted into a model nigger. Hopefully, he would return to preach the faith. That way, Whitey would remain in charge though, no doubt, the darkies would be too stupid to notice. Justice must blind those whom it can not otherwise serve.

Returning to the Carnegie Council article we find that whereas the analytical philosophy of the Fifties was about Russel's type of justice- except it couldn't say so in so many words lest the wogs take umbrage- Rawls had a more moralistic, or Christian, end in view. His critique of Utilitarianism is similar to Aristotle's objection to Plato's understanding of all types of association being alike and only being different in degree. Instead, the Koinonia Politike- or political community- of its essence must concern what is incommensurable or essentially diverse. However, 'distinctiveness of persons' does not matter provided there is 'transferable utility'- i.e. you can pay off or threaten distinct persons to stop being so fucking distinct and just get with the program already. 

Thus, while most philosophers asked how the word "justice'' is generally used, Rawls is much more ambitious: he wants to be able to say that such-and-such a social arrangement is or is not "just.''

Rawls thinks there is a 'basic structure' to Human Life. There isn't. Aristotle was wrong. Darwin was right. Only the fitness landscape matters. But it is radically uncertain. Public deliberation can't reduce Knightian uncertainty. However the market can provide hedges and mechanisms of various sorts one of which is the 'Stationary Bandit' that is the State. 

His aim is to

shit higher than his arsehole. The poor fool thought he understood maths stuff. He didn't.  

create "ideal theory,'' a standard against which actual policy choices, when they arise, can be judged. He begins by defining justice as "fairness''

but was ignorant of mathsy 'fair division' under Knightian uncertainty. The answer is 'get insurance against calamities. Don't agree that everybody should get the same cake slice. Think of the moral hazard.'  

and then, in A Theory of Justice, describes a procedure for cashing out this notion. Employing the well-worn concept of a "social contract,'' but with some twists of his own, he generates the principles for establishing just institutions in a society: equal liberty for all,

In which case, there is a 'hold-out' problem. Why sign on to a contract without maximizing consideration received? Rawls might say 'as a reasonable person you should want to do this' but we reply 'you eat dog turds. That's totes unreasonable dude. Fuck is the matter with you?'  

fair equality of opportunity,

which only an omniscient God could ensure. I could have had the opportunity to be Prime Minister of India if only Rajiv had married me instead of Sonia. 

and material differences to be justified only on the basis that they benefit the least advantaged.

a movable feast. Rawls forgot about disutility. At the margin, there is someone in work who will quit her job if the entitlement of the 'least advantaged' rises. The problem here is that whereas monetary reward is easily verifiable, disutility isn't.  

These are quite radical principles (although socialists object that they still allow for substantial differentials) and they are taken to be of universal relevance.

Did Rawls divide up his pay packet with the least advantaged on his campus? Did anybody? If not, the thing had no fucking relevance whatsoever.  

In his earlier work, Rawls holds that only liberal societies organized on these lines can be described as just, although later, in The Law of Peoples, he does acknowledge that some non-liberal societies could be, if not actually just, at least "well ordered'' and "decent.''

Very kind of him I'm sure. To be fair, some non-liberal societies have acknowledged that Rawls would make a decent punching bag in a well ordered world.  

Sen accepts the general proposition that justice should be understood as fairness,

Though that is not how it is understood. A thing may be fair but unjust and vice versa. Two strangers on a train may decide to kill each other's wives so both have an alibi. It would be unfair if one reneged after the other killed his spouse. But it would be contrary to justice for a Court to compel him to complete his side of the bargain.  

but finds many features of Rawls's model troubling

As an economist he should have simply said 'behind the veil of ignorance, we choose collective insurance same as we do in real life. That way, if the worst happens, we are covered.'  

—and troubling for reasons that students of international ethics will have no difficulty in recognizing and sympathizing with. First, there is the contractarian nature of Rawls's work, which requires us to see justice as the product of an agreement among members of a clearly defined society; Sen agrees with those critics of Rawls who find this problematic under modern conditions.

It is crazy shit. Firstly, such a contract would be 'incomplete' because of Knightian uncertainty and thus 'anything goes'. Secondly, there would be a hold-out problem. Anyway, absent consideration passing, no contract is binding. I agree that we must all suck off homeless dudes. But after laughing heartily at your face which is dripping with cum, I refuse to do any such thing. There is no actual contract. No consideration passed. Any way, the thing was repugnant. 

Rawls assumes for the purpose of his model that societies are discrete, self-sufficient, self-contained entities into which people are born and which they leave by death. This is clearly not the case in reality, and, even if it were, decisions made within one society can have serious consequences for others—one only has to consider the issue of environmental degradation to see that this is so. The point is that if justice is defined as the product of a contract, the interests of non-contractors—foreigners, future generations, perhaps nature itself—may well be neglected.

This is why justice is not defined as the result of a contract. Positive law is law as command. Either the thing is enforced coercively or it is a dead letter.  

This is actually a common criticism of Rawls and Rawlsians, and Charles Beitz and Thomas Pogge have suggested that perhaps the whole world should be regarded as a "society'' for the purposes of this social contract.

International law does exist for some purposes but it grants legal personality to a variety of entities while denying it in an arbitrary manner to certain other similar entities. 

 As Sen points out, however, this will not do—the idea of society presumes a degree of global unity that simply does not exist.

For some purposes it may do to a superior degree than national unity in specific cases.  

It is the very idea of basing justice on a contract that is problematic, not the details of the contract.

So, embrace Legal Positivism. That's the sensible course.  


Rawlsian critics of Rawls are generally much less concerned with the second feature of A Theory of Justice that exercises Sen—namely, Rawls's emphasis on the importance of "ideal theory,'' or what Sen calls a "transcendental'' approach to justice, the desire to create an account of justice that is universal and necessary, that applies everywhere, and at all times.

Individuals are welcome to have or lack this. The thing makes no difference to anybody- except a few pedants swindling their students by pretending to teach them something useful or valuable.  

Sen doubts that a single account of this kind is either possible or necessary. There are many possible theories of justice. In the beginning of the book he tells the engaging story of three children, Ann, Bob, and Carla, who are quarreling over the fate of a flute (p. 12). Ann claims the flute on the basis that she is the only one who can play it, Bob claims it because he has no other toys to play with whereas the others do, and Carla's claim is based on the fact that she made the flute in the first place. All of these statements are taken to be true,

Why? Only one is objectively verifiable and represents an 'uncorrelated asymmetry'. We can get evidence that Carla made the flute. We can't be sure, given enough practice, that Ann is the only one who can play it or that Bob will always remain poor and deprived of toys. Thus only one claim can be taken to be true. The 'bourgeois strategy' prevails.  

and Sen's point is that one can produce intuitively plausible reasons for giving the flute to any one of the children. Utilitarians—and for different reasons, Aristotelians—would favor Ann,

No. They would favor Carla. The disutility of making the flute must be balanced by the utility of getting to dispose of it. Aristotelians have no reason to favor the idle. If Ann wants the flute let her pay for it.  

10 egalitarians Bob,

till Carla complains that now she has no toys and so Bob must be deprived of the flute though Carla is then forced to give it back and so on and so forth. 

libertarians Carla, but the real point here is that there is no reason to assume, as Rawls and most of his followers do, that we have to decide which of these answers is the right one. Sometimes there is simply a plurality of "right'' answers.

Not in this case. There was only one 'uncorrelated asymmetry' of a verifiable, common knowledge, type because of 'Knightian Uncertainty'. Carla, unable to sell her flute, may become a sublime flute player. Bob may inherit vast wealth from his Uncle, who unbeknownst to us, had just dropped dead. Ann may already be infected with a deadly virus.  

The idea that there is only one kind of just society—a liberal society defined by principles set out in Rawls's model—and that all others represent a falling off from this ideal does not seem a plausible response to the pluralism that undoubtedly exists in the modern world.

But that pluralism ceases to be a problem if 'transferable utility' exists- i.e. people can be paid off or threatened till they get with the program.  


Staying with the critique of "ideal theory,'' Sen also contests the practical value of establishing an ideal in this way.

Actually, in the absence of any agreement to the contrary, a Court would award equal shares. This could be changed in a Rawlsian direction- i.e. more for the worst off- so the 'ideal' has cash value.

Sen's shite has none.  

In defense of ideal theory it is generally argued that an account of what a just world would look like gives us a yardstick against which to measure particular policies, but Sen observes that this is much less helpful than it might seem at first sight. In practice, we measure one possible policy against another possible policy, and not against an ideal.

No we don't. We do what is in our interest. True, if we are paid to do some measuring then we pretend to do some measuring. But we would do the same if we were paid to do grok some supposed ideal.  

Sen uses another simple analogy to make the point: if asked to say whether a van Gogh or a Picasso is the better painting, it hardly helps to be told that da Vinci's Mona Lisa is the best painting of all time (p. 101).

Nonsense! We have a simple rule. Art peaked in da Vinci's time. Van Gogh is closer to that peak than Pickarso.  

This is not a particularly good analogy, since what constitutes a "better'' painting is unclear, but the point Sen is trying to get across is clear enough—namely, that pursuing justice is actually about making comparisons; we ask ourselves whether this policy will make the world a somewhat better place as opposed to that policy, and an ideal world contributes very little, if anything, to this process of comparison.

Rubbish! If we are being paid to do comparisons and we know the guy paying us has a fetish for one type of shite then we use that information strategically.  


The third point Sen raises against Rawls and the Rawlsians concerns the importance they place on establishing just institutions.

Why establish institutions? Why not just sit under a tree talking? Whitey should stop establishing things. Just sit under tree listening to nice Bengali babus till you starve to death.  

The basic idea here is that if you can get the institutions right you do not need to worry about actual human behavior;

Very true. If the institution where you teach is properly conducted, your students won't stab you. Sen left India for the UK just when students in India were getting to be a little too stabby stabby.  

essentially, the assumption is that, as Kant put it, even a "race of devils'' could, if intelligent, produce just institutions and a just society.

Kant was German. His idea of a just society would still be a fucking nightmare to everybody else.  

 This position is, of course, particularly problematic at the international level, where the institutional structure is weak by comparison with the sovereign state.

People in sovereign states still get stabbed. It is doubtful that Rawls went around insulting Mafiosi or Hell's Angels.  

This has led some Rawlsians to propose highly implausible, and probably undesirable, shifts toward global government (consider, for example, Thomas Pogge's notion of a "democracy panel,'' which would determine whether particular regimes were democratic and thus deserve to be treated as sovereign and entitled to dispose of their natural resources),

Pogge has now been condemned by hundreds of fellow ethicists for sexual harassment. Apparently, he was trying to achieve Global Justice by getting his dick into the vagina's of people from poor countries in return for career advancement. 

This is perfectly consistent with earlier views of how civilization is spread by White dicks. The women who objected to it were, as Pogge said, 'petit bourgeois' 'feminists'.

while other political philosophers, most notably Thomas Nagel, have recently declared that global justice is simply impossible to achieve given the implausibility of such schemes.

 Nagel may feel he is too old to achieve global justice with his dick. 


Here Sen is particularly innovative and illuminating. Drawing on the Sanskrit literature on ethics and jurisprudence, he outlines a distinction between niti and nyaya; both of these terms can be translated as "justice,''

Niti is policy. Changes in sentencing policy may be decided by legislatures. However, justice is separate and independent.  

but they summarize rather different notions (pp. 20ff.). Niti refers to correct procedures, formal rules, and institutions;

Not in Indian or Anglo-American jurisdictions. The Judiciary must decide for itself what is or isn't 'due process' or in conformity with the 'basic structure' of the constitution.  

nyaya is a broader, more inclusive concept that looks to the world that emerges from the institutions we create, rather than focusing directly on the institutions themselves.

Policy focuses on outcomes. Justice does not. It resolves conflicting claims- e.g. of guilt or innocence- but without caring what the real world would be. Thus a surgeon may be sent to the gallows for killing a criminal to harvest his organs to save the lives of good people.  

Sen sees this distinction as visible in European thought. Such theorists as Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau, Kant, and, most recently, Rawls look to the establishment of correct institutions,

because these guys were doing political philosophy. They weren't economists. 

while such writers as Adam Smith, Wollstonecraft, Bentham, Marx, and Mill take a more comparative approach, looking holistically at social realizations that are certainly the product of institutions, but also of other factors, including human behavior.

An absolute monarchy can pursue laissez faire or feminist policies just as a democracy could be Marxist or employ a Benthamite Social Planner.  

There was a small market for books of a certain type and some pedants or pamphleteers made a little money of it. Sadly, Rawls and Sen and Pogge and Habermas had little understanding of the world in which they lived in. They were merely pedants who were part of a credentialized Ponzi scheme which has now collapsed. 


Smith's work in The Theory of Moral Sentiments is particularly important to Sen because, from within this second Enlightenment tradition that Sen values, it offers an approach to the notion of "fairness'' that is highly attractive.

It was certainly highly attractive to the good folk who conquered Bengal and traded in black slaves.  

Whereas Rawls employs an elaborate fiction in order to arrive at his notion of fairness (contractors are supposed to choose principles under a hypothetical "veil of ignorance'' wherein they are ignorant of certain key facts about their own position), Smith asks instead, what would an "impartial spectator,'' someone (or several someones, because there could actually be numerous impartial spectators surveying the scene from different vantage points) observing from the outside, make of a particular state of affairs?

Nothing of interest precisely because they have no skin in the game. Obviously, if what they say is not to our liking then we accuse them of being highly partial. Why would they want to stand around to dispute our accusations? When Sen was accused of misconduct did he really want all sorts of 'impartial observers' turning up to testify? No. He stood on his rights.  

 This is much less cumbersome and complicated a notion than that of the original position, and it has the added advantage of not pretending to be a precise exercise.

Actually, the 'original position' yields a precise outcome which is the same as the fundamental principle of all contract law- not just Social Contract theory- viz.  there is no contract without passing of consideration. In other words, everybody says 'either pay me immediately or fuck off. I'm not signing shit'. 

It invites us to trust our capacity to identify injustice, if we can but project ourselves out of our natural partiality for our own interests.

This is Shantideva's 'paratman parivartana'- or 'swopping selves'. If you aint a Yogi of some very advanced type, you can't do it & you also can't know anyone who can. In other words, like Rawls's proposal, Sen's proposal falls at the first hurdle. 


Throughout The Idea of Justice, Sen invites us to engage in public reasoning in pursuit of justice,

this is done by lawyers in courts- not shitheads teaching shite.  

not by reference to some kind of ideal, but in very practical terms,

which lawyers are briefed about by their clients. Confidentiality means they have access to the truth in a manner the rest of us do not.  

comparing the impact of particular policies, and reflecting on the way things are done in the name of impartiality and fairness. He invites us to consider social arrangements as wholes, to assess their impact in broad comprehensive terms without becoming obsessed with procedures or formal rules—in short, to embrace nyaya rather than niti,

Nyaya means 'Justice'. Niti means 'policy'- i.e. stuff which political leaders decide. Replace the Executive with the Judiciary & the result would be as disastrous as substituting advocates for surgeon in hospital theatres.  

Smith rather than Kant.

Fuck Kant. He was a kretin.  

This kind of public reasoning can no longer be confined to particular societies but must now be global in scope and range. Fortunately, the very interdependence that demands that we take into account the interests of others also helps us to see things from their perspective. Sen recognizes that this will not be easy. There is no ideal to guide our discussions, and the comparisons he invites us to make will cause us to question our own interests, which is never comfortable. Still, in his own work, and indeed in his own life, he offers us a paradigm of what it means to be a global impartial spectator.

Sen, like Arrow-Debreu, makes crazy assumptions such that nobody would need to learn human language or get an education. Everything that can be known or done is already coded into the vector of future prices. I don't need to DM threatening to beat you up for getting my fiancee to elope with Rahul Baba. There would be some sort of instantaneous emoji denoting this which would be beamed directly into your brain in return for my collecting some dog poop for Amartya Sen to eat. 

Arrow-Debreu world is anything goes. The real world isn't because information asymmetries are uncorrelated. This enables us to say that proposals for 'different societal arrangements' are mischievous. It would be unjust to pursue them in the same way that it would be unjust to bite our own heads off so as to protest Uranus. This does not mean that the feasible trajectories for our Society can't be graded. They can- but not now, never now. The Owl of Minerva takes wing only after dusk has fallen. 


JL Austin & a priori crap


In his paper 'are there a priori concepts?', JL Austin asked

when we ask 'Do - we possess the concept?' what are we asking?

If x asks a question, we can ask x to clarify what exactly he is asking. What is a priori about an utterance is the intention of the utterer- even if the utterance is never actually made. 

Thus when my boss asked me if I possessed the concept of punctuality, it was not necessary for him to clarify that what he wanted to know was whether I understood I had to come to work at 9 A.M, not 2 P.M.  

If we are asking about some individual, or about some group of individuals, whether he or they 'possess the concept of redness', some meanings can well be attached to this expression.

Such an attachment would be arbitrary. I choose to think my boss's question means he thinks I've been working too hard & should take the rest of the week off.  Indeed, this is what he is asking me to do. This becomes the basis of my claim of unfair dismissal. However, the court does not uphold my complaint because they decide that what my Boss was asking was for me to come to work on time. This is the reasonable or canonical or 'natural' interpretation of the question. Mine was arbitrary & self-serving. 

We may well ask of people from a different culture whether their colour palette coincides with us when it comes to the colour red. The Himba tribe of northern Namibia is widely cited in linguistic and anthropological studies as a culture that does not categorize the colour blue as distinct from green. We may say that they don't have a separate concept of blue.

It might be supposed to mean, for example, 'Does he, or do they, understand the word "red"?' But that again needs further explanation; we shall almost certainly find that it is still ambiguous, and that, at least on many interpretations, no precise answer can be given as to whether the individual does or does not 'understand' the 'word'.

Nonsense! The person who asked the question can clear up any ambiguity. True, we can pretend otherwise. I could say 'punctuality' is ambiguous.  It could mean 'punch you actually' which is why I punched my boss. But, no reasonable person would uphold this view. 

Does the word 'red' matter? Would it not do if he used 'rouge' and understood that? Or even 'green' if he meant by that what most Englishmen mean by 'red'? And so on.

This is silly. It is psilosophy. Austin thinks

to ask 'whether we possess a certain concept?' is the same as to ask whether a certain word- or rather, sentences in which it occurs- has any meaning.

ask the guy using the word or sentence. He may say 'I was babbling nonsense. I didn't mean anything by it'. But if he intended something else, he can say so. If he is dead or unable to communicate, a Judge or other competent authority may 'read in' a meaning which best suits the case.  

whether that is a sensible question to ask, and if so how it is to be answered, I do not know: in any case, it is llkely to be ambiguous.

Only if that is the intention. Austin's philosophical practice was to create ambiguities where none need  exist.  

True, anyone can arbitrarily deny the existence or meaningfulness or logical compossibility of anything else. But why get our knickers in a twist over what nutters or awkward sods get up to? 

 Since it is going to be awkward, to say the least, to prove that a certain concept simply is not, it is tempting to try another way. Instead of maintaining that it does not exist, we maintain that it cannot exist. For instance, in certain cases we may hope to show that an 'idea' is 'self-contradictory', as Leibniz thought he could show of the 'infinite number' or Berkeley of 'matter'. 

Is 'a priori' a concept? If so, at least one concept is a priori. If not, either it isn't for an a priori reason- in which case it is- or it isn't for a non a priori reason. But such a reason presupposes a concept of a priori- just as 'non-unicorn' presupposes unicorn (even though unicorns don't exist).  Of course, one could say x does not exist for no reason at all. But that doesn't mean the concept of it doesn't exist. But what's the difference between saying 'the 'a priori' is a concept' & 'the concept of 'a priori' is a concept? 

Austin may be right to say philosophers are confused & thus they should not attempt to answer such questions. Indeed, we may go further. We may say they have shit for brains and should be retrained as pieces of office furniture. But the fact that a class of people are imbeciles doesn't mean anybody else needs to bother with 'linguistic analysis'. 

In 'the meaning of a word' Austin writes-

Suppose that in ordinary life I am asked: 'What is the meaning of the word racy?'

You might say 'ordinarily the word means risqué' but what is the context? Who used that word to you- was it a darkie with an accent? If so, he was calling you a racist. 

There are two sorts of thing I may do in response: I may reply in words, trying to describe what raciness is and what it is not, to give examples of sentences in which one might use the word racy, and of others in which one should not. Let us call this sort of thing 'explaining the syntactics' of the word 'racy' in the English language.

You'd only do this if you were qualified to teach English.  

On the other hand, I might do what we may call 'demonstrating the semantics' of the word, by getting the questioner to imagine, or even actually to experience, situations which we should describe correctly by means of sentences containing the words 'racy' 'raciness', &c., and again other situations where we should not use these words. This is, of course, a simple case: but perhaps the same two sorts of procedure would be gone through in the case of at least most ordinary words. And in the same way, if I wished to find out 'whether he understands the meaning of the word racy', I should test hm at some length in these two ways (which perhaps could not be entirely divorced from each other).

This is true only of a teacher of English or someone who feels a duty to correct people's use of the language according to their own conception of how it ought to be spoken.  

Having asked in ths way, and answered, 'What is the meaning of (the word) "rat"?', 'What is the meaning of (the word) "cat"?', 'What is the meaning of (the word) "mat"?', and so on, we then try, being phlosophers, to ask the further general question, 'What is the meaning of a word?'

Its meaning unless a cypher is being used or catachresis has occurred etc. 

But there is something spurious about this question.

It sounds like a 'brain-fart' like when a tired teacher asks 'who was the author of James Joyce's Ulysses?'  

We do not intend to mean by it a certain question which would be perfectly all right, namely, 'What is the meaning of (the word) "word"?': that would be no more general than is asking the meaning of the word 'rat', and would be answered in a precisely similar way.

Questions of this sort are evidence of ignorance- in the case of foreigners- or intense stupidity. You may say 'they are a step above a 'brain-fart' but not much more than that. A discipline which concerns itself with either is degenerate. Why was this not obvious at the time? 


Monday, 27 April 2026

Das Kapital- Chapter 1

In the Foreword to his magnum opus, Karl Marx wrote 

Every beginning is difficult, holds in all sciences.

If you begin with a false premise you aren't doing science.  

To understand the first chapter, especially the section that contains the analysis of commodities, will, therefore, present the greatest difficulty.

It is easy to understand. Sadly it is utter shit.  

That which concerns more especially the analysis of the substance of value and the magnitude of value, I have, as much as it was possible, popularised.

You have shat on it. The substance of value is the substance of a thing which is valuable. In the case of bullion, it is a precious metal. In the case of sheep, it is mutton & wool. The magnitude of value is expressed by numbers. One sheep is less valuable than two sheep. Marx was too stupid to understand this.  

The value-form, whose fully developed shape is the money-form,

Money is a one type of asset. There were already far more sophisticated types of negotiable instrument. 

is very elementary and simple. Nevertheless, the human mind has for more than 2,000 years sought in vain to get to the bottom of it all,

But Karl was such a genius he didn't just get to its bottom but made it his bitch.  

whilst on the other hand, to the successful analysis of much more composite and complex forms, there has been at least an approximation. Why? Because the body, as an organic whole, is more easy of study than are the cells of that body.

Now the fucker thinks he is a medical genius.  

In the analysis of economic forms, moreover, neither microscopes nor chemical reagents are of use.

Nor is a head full of shit. 

The force of abstraction must replace both.

Abstraction has no force. If a stupid shithead is doing the abstracting, it is shit. Karl was a cretin.  

Chapter 1: Commodities Section 1: The Two Factors of a Commodity: Use-Value and Value (The Substance of Value and the Magnitude of Value) The wealth of those societies in which the capitalist mode of production prevails, presents itself as “an immense accumulation of commodities,”

 Nonsense! You might see big big piles of wool or wheat in some feudal shithole. You won't see any at all on the Stock Exchange or the conference rooms of Merchant Banks.   

its unit being a single commodity. Our investigation must therefore begin with the analysis of a commodity.

None is needed. It is a Tarskian primitive. If the thing is on sale, its a commodity. If you can't buy or sell it, it isn't.  

A commodity is, in the first place,

fungible- i.e. interchangeable rather than unique. But, for such to be the case, there must be market-makers who procure &  & make merchantable a standardized product. 

an object outside us, a thing that by its properties satisfies human wants of some sort or another.

Nobody knows what 'satisfied human wants'. Market makers & entrepreneurs have expectations in this regard as do consumers.  

The nature of such wants, whether, for instance, they spring from the stomach or from fancy, makes no difference.

Yes it does. There are somethings which stomachs are capable of digesting. There are other things which are poison. That is why if you are in the food business, you have to observe different health codes than if you are in the entertainment business.  

Neither are we here concerned to know how the object satisfies these wants, whether directly as means of subsistence, or indirectly as means of production.

Because what Marx is here concerned with is useless shite. If you are a producer or consumer you need to know the determinants of demand & supply.  

Every useful thing, as iron, paper, &c., may be looked at from the two points of view of quality and quantity.

this may be done by those engaged in a wholly useless or mischievous activity.  

It is an assemblage of many properties, and may therefore be of use in various ways. To discover the various uses of things is the work of history.

No. It is the work of scientists, technologists, entrepreneurs, inventors etc. Marx had shit for brains.  

So also is the establishment of socially-recognized standards of measure for the quantities of these useful objects.

Fuck that! A better standard of measure is like a better mouse-trap. A path to your door will be beaten by- not society as a whole- but those interested in making more money or producing a thing more economically.  

The diversity of these measures has its origin partly in the diverse nature of the objects to be measured, partly in convention.

because that's how language works.  But language doesn't matter greatly in economics. 

The utility of a thing makes it a use value.

Only if the smell of a thing makes it a smell value or the fact that you shove it up your arse makes it an anal dildo value. People have expectations regarding the usefulness of a thing. Often they are wrong. I keep buying kitchen appliances which I never use.  

But this utility is not a thing of air.

Expectations could be described as such. They don't exist in any tangible manner though we can infer them easily enough. This is called 'revealed preference'.  

Being limited by the physical properties of the commodity, it has no existence apart from that commodity.

Nonsense! Gold is a commodity. A legal claim to gold has great utility and has an existence apart from the commodity. But this is true of anything which is fungible in a certain manner. 

A commodity, such as iron, corn, or a diamond, is therefore, so far as it is a material thing, a use value, something useful.

No. Lots of things which existed in Marx's time had no 'use value' but would become very valuable at a later point. Uranium was discovered in 1798. It became useful a century later. 

This property of a commodity is independent of the amount of labour required to appropriate its useful qualities.

It is not a property of the commodity. It is an expectation in the mind of a user or potential user of it. Marx might as well say 'Kingliness is a property of Kings. A King is a king even if no labour is expended on his coronation or other ceremonies of state. Also, his Mum wouldn't have needed to go into labour in order for him to be born.'  

When treating of use value, we always assume to be dealing with definite quantities, such as dozens of watches, yards of linen, or tons of iron.

No. You work with estimates & probability distributions.  

The use values of commodities furnish the material for a special study, that of the commercial knowledge of commodities.

As commerce burgeons, the statistical sciences burgeon. This cunt knew nothing of a developments in commercial insurance which had been going on in London since the late seventeenth century.  

Use values become a reality only by use or consumption:

They are not a reality. They are a predicate applied to something which may or may not be tangible. Marx commits the fallacy of accident- fallacia accidentis- by thinking what is true of a merchantable commodity is true of thing being sold. Thus, when I buy a k.g. of potatoes, I am buying something merchantable. This does not means any and every potato is merchantable. It is likely that some processing has to supervene before merchantability is attained. I may say 'potatoes are found in the grocery store'. But it is no part of the 'essence' (what is true of a thing in all possible worlds) of a tuber that it be found in a shop. 

they also constitute the substance of all wealth,

A lot of wealth is a legal claim to future payments- e.g. rent, interest, profits- or a claim to assets of various sorts- e.g. land, buildings, intellectual property etc.  

whatever may be the social form of that wealth.

There is a legal form of wealth. That is its social form. True, as a manner of speaking, we may say 'health is the true wealth' or 'love alone is worth prizing' or 'gaining God's grace is the best of treasures'.  

In the form of society we are about to consider, they are, in addition, the material depositories of exchange value.

There is realty- which is specific. For commodities, there is fungibility-  the ability of an asset or commodity to be exchanged or substituted with other identical units of the same type and value, with no loss of value.

Exchange value, at first sight, presents itself as a quantitative relation, as the proportion in which values in use of one sort are exchanged for those of another sort, a relation constantly changing with time and place. Hence exchange value appears to be something accidental and purely relative, and consequently an intrinsic value, i.e., an exchange value that is inseparably connected with, inherent in commodities, seems a contradiction in terms.

The commodity is defined by merchantability- i.e. is fit for its ordinary purpose, being of average quality, adequately packaged, etc. It is not an inherent attribute. 

Let us consider the matter a little more closely. A given commodity, e.g., a quarter of wheat is exchanged for x blacking, y silk, or z gold, &c. – in short, for other commodities in the most different proportions.

Only if there is a market with market makers. Otherwise, all we can say is that x was exchanged for y at time t.  

Instead of one exchange value, the wheat has, therefore, a great many.

If there are market makers then there may be a vector of this sort. Otherwise, there is only the value at which a particular exchange took place.  

But since x blacking, y silk, or z gold &c., each represents the exchange value of one quarter of wheat, x blacking, y silk, z gold, &c., must, as exchange values, be replaceable by each other, or equal to each other.

Only if some market-maker stipulates thus. But they won't. They will offer a 'spread'- i.e. a buy price and a sell price.  

Therefore, first: the valid exchange values of a given commodity express something equal; secondly, exchange value, generally, is only the mode of expression, the phenomenal form, of something contained in it, yet distinguishable from it.

It is a predicate & isn't any more or less phenomenal than anything else. 

Let us take two commodities, e.g., corn and iron. The proportions in which they are exchangeable, whatever those proportions may be, can always be represented by an equation in which a given quantity of corn is equated to some quantity of iron: e.g., 1 quarter corn = x cwt. iron.

No. There will always be a 'spread'- i.e. a profit for the market-maker. Otherwise, all there is is a particular transaction at a particular time and place- e.g. Smith exchanged 1 ton of corn for 1 ton of iron with Jones last Tuesday at Paddington.  

What does this equation tell us? It tells us that in two different things – in 1 quarter of corn and x cwt. of iron, there exists in equal quantities something common to both.

No. We merely learn that Smith & Jones made such and such transaction. We don't know if this is the 'market clearing' price- i.e. everybody could sell & buy at this price.  

The two things must therefore be equal to a third, which in itself is neither the one nor the other. Each of them, so far as it is exchange value, must therefore be reducible to this third.

No. A market-maker (or a bunch of them) may offer a 'spread' & this may 'clear the market'- i.e. there is no excess supply or demand at the end of trading.  

A simple geometrical illustration will make this clear. In order to calculate and compare the areas of rectilinear figures, we decompose them into triangles.

Rectangles, not triangles.  

But the area of the triangle itself is expressed by

some guy for some purpose 

something totally different from its visible figure, namely, by half the product of the base multiplied by the altitude.

This assumes the embedding space is Euclidean.  

In the same way the exchange values of commodities must be capable of being expressed

by some guy for some particular purpose 

in terms of something common to them all, of which thing they represent a greater or less quantity.

One particular commodity can be used as the 'numeraire'. Every price can be expressed in its terms- e.g. in prison, we might say a can of soup is worth five cigarettes while a tube of toothpaste is worth ten cigarettes. But this depends on the existence of 'market-makers'- i.e. guys with a bunch of ciggies who trade them in the hope of making a profit- i.e. ending up with more ciggies or stuff which can be exchanged for them.  

This common “something” cannot be either a geometrical, a chemical, or any other natural property of commodities.

It could be. Suppose some ciggies contain more tobacco than others. They will trade at a premium.  

Such properties claim our attention only in so far as they affect the utility of those commodities, make them use values. But the exchange of commodities is evidently an act characterised by a total abstraction from use value.

No. It is characterised by total contingency. I need my ciggie now and trade it for toothpaste though I will regret this later on.  

Then one use value is just as good as another, provided only it be present in sufficient quantity. Or, as old Barbon says, “one sort of wares are as good as another, if the values be equal. There is no difference or distinction in things of equal value ... An hundred pounds’ worth of lead or iron, is of as great value as one hundred pounds’ worth of silver or gold.”

Only if a market maker makes this stipulation- except, there won't be an equation. There will be a spread between selling and buying price. Marx lived in a City where there were a lot of brokers and arbitrageurs of various sorts. He is pretending they didn't make a profit. They risked their money & expended their time in a purely altruistic spirit. 

Even if a non-profit enterprise undertook market making, it would charge a commission to cover its costs- including cost of funds, & the price of 'hedging' (insuring against risks).  

As use values, commodities are, above all, of different qualities, but as exchange values they are merely different quantities, and consequently do not contain an atom of use value.

No. They are still of different qualities. The more perishable the commodity the more it will trade at a discount. Non perishables which are high value to weight trade at a premium. This means the 'spread' is differs because of specific qualities- e.g. perishability.  

If then we leave out of consideration the use value of commodities, they have only one common property left, that of being products of labour.

No. The only common property is that market-makers are involved. They may be trading cowrie shells they picked up at the beach or using such cowrie shells to bet on a cock fight. 

Incidentally, most of the things which are the product of labour aren't commodities.  

But even the product of labour itself has undergone a change in our hands.

Which is why we don't want your grubby hands touching anything we produced with much labour.  

If we make abstraction from its use value, we make abstraction at the same time from the material elements and shapes that make the product a use value; we see in it no longer a table, a house, yarn, or any other useful thing.

Nonsense! If you bid on a house at an auction you see it as a house. True, you may expect to 'flip' it at a profit but that is because of the type of house it is and where it is located and what value you think you can add to it.  

Its existence as a material thing is put out of sight. Neither can it any longer be regarded as the product of the labour of the joiner, the mason, the spinner, or of any other definite kind of productive labour. Along with the useful qualities of the products themselves, we put out of sight both the useful character of the various kinds of labour embodied in them, and the concrete forms of that labour; there is nothing left but what is common to them all; all are reduced to one and the same sort of labour, human labour in the abstract.

Utterly false. Nobody is thinking of the human labour which went into a thing. They are thinking of who might want to buy it at a higher price at some later time. True, there is an element of risk involved. But some people may be better at assessing risk & they can succeed as market-makers.  

Let us now consider the residue of each of these products; it consists of the same unsubstantial reality in each, a mere congelation of homogeneous human labour, of labour power expended without regard to the mode of its expenditure.

Nonsense! The fact that some labour has been expended on a thing does not protect it from destruction. In any case, human labour is not homogenous.  

All that these things now tell us is, that human labour power has been expended in their production, that human labour is embodied in them.

Energy of various types has been expended on producing a thing and this will be reflected in its cost of production which is a determinant of the market supply of the commodity. The number of man-hours involved may be insignificant relative to the cost of electricity expended.  

Not all products are traded on open markets. Where there is 'administered pricing' & excess demand is denoted by longer waiting time- one might say that the per unit labour cost plays a role in determining price. If this is equated to the marginal cost- i.e. the wage is determined by the marginal productivity of the last worker hired- then, in a Malthusian society, you would have 'the iron law of wages'- i.e. population expansion would keep wages at just the subsistence level. But wages are not set on open markets and, in any case, this would only hold true for the 'fix-price' sector of the economy. 

When looked at as crystals of this social substance, common to them all, they are – Values.

No. Only stuff taken to market gets assigned a price- if it sells. The 'crystals' of society are people. It is foolish to pretend every man has his price & is constantly selling himself for filthy lucre.  

We have seen that when commodities are exchanged, their exchange value manifests itself as something totally independent of their use value.

We have seen the opposite every day. You buy x but find it not to be of merchantable quality. You return it and get a refund. Maybe the seller can sell it at a lower price for some other purpose- e.g. spoiled milk may be sold to the cheesemaker for a lower price.  

But if we abstract from their use value, there remains their Value as defined above.

No. Use value is itself an abstraction or generalisation from something observed- viz. people buying some things but not others. We assume they get some use from it. But they may be speculators- e.g. the Dutch tulip mania where people drove up the price of the thing hoping to sell at a bigger profit.  

Therefore, the common substance that manifests itself in the exchange value of commodities, whenever they are exchanged, is their value.

But those values differ. Sure you can say all value is Value or all weight is weight or all height is height. But, this is non informative. It is a tautology of a puerile type.  

The progress of our investigation will show that exchange value is the only form in which the value of commodities can manifest itself or be expressed.

Nonsense! Consider the gold in a gold mine. Specialist surveyors with knowledge of geology will give different estimates as to the quantity of recoverable ore. Valuation will be based on some such estimate. The gold mine may be sold- i.e. have exchange value- on the basis of this estimate. 

For the present, however, we have to consider the nature of value independently of this, its form.

This is like considering the nature of the height of a person independent of his body.  

A use value, or useful article, therefore, has value only because human labour in the abstract has been embodied or materialised in it.

A person has height only because height has been embedded in him. All three dimensional things have height. If they have value or are useful or are capable of being inserted into your anus it is because height is the property common to all. This proves that History must ineluctably empower tall people over shorties.  

How, then, is the magnitude of this value to be measured? Plainly, by

money or the numeraire (e.g. cigarettes used as currency in a prison) 

the quantity of the value-creating substance, the labour, contained in the article.

It is irrelevant. That is why my books- upon which I have expended a lot of labour- are worthless.  

The quantity of labour, however, is measured by its duration, and labour time in its turn finds its standard in weeks, days, and hours.

Time is measured in that way. The quantity of labour is established by 'head-count'. 

Some people might think that if the value of a commodity is determined by the quantity of labour spent on it, the more idle and unskilful the labourer, the more valuable would his commodity be,

Nobody has ever thought that. They did think that if labour was more productive, things would be cheaper for everybody.  

because more time would be required in its production. The labour, however, that forms the substance of value, is homogeneous human labour,

there is no such thing. Sadly, there is also no homogenous Capital or Entrepreneurship or Sexiness. Capital theory is as useless as Marxian theory.  

expenditure of one uniform labour power. The total labour power of society, which is embodied in the sum total of the values of all commodities produced by that society,

Fuck off! An oil rich Emirate may not have much labour power but it may have very high per capita GDP 

counts here as one homogeneous mass of human labour power, composed though it be of innumerable individual units. Each of these units is the same as any other, so far as it has the character of the average labour power of society,

all people are the same height in so far as they have the character of average height.  

and takes effect as such; that is, so far as it requires for producing a commodity, no more time than is needed on an average, no more than is socially necessary.

Nobody knows what that is. If asked how tall you are, you reply that you are as tall as it is socially necessary to be, you have not revealed any information save that you have shit for brains.  

The labour time socially necessary is that required to produce an article under the normal conditions of production, and with the average degree of skill and intensity prevalent at the time.

Some 'work study' experts may establish this for a particular industry at a particular time. But no 'social necessity' is involved.  

The introduction of power-looms into England probably reduced by one-half the labour required to weave a given quantity of yarn into cloth.

Mechanisation of spinning meant that yarn became cheaper thus permitting handloom weavers to gain higher wages for a couple of decades before weaving itself became mechanised. This was a brief golden age.  

The handloom weavers, as a matter of fact, continued to require the same time as before; but for all that, the product of one hour of their labour represented after the change only half an hour’s social labour, and consequently fell to one-half its former value.

No. If the handloom weaver produced the same type of cloth as the power loom then his wage fell. But if he shifted to producing something differentiated by quality (higher thread count) or style then the market might permit him to take home a higher wage than previously- more particularly if he could afford to buy one of the new 'dandy looms'. But the number of people in that line of work would tend to drop. There was little point being apprenticed to a dying trade. 

We see then that that which determines the magnitude of the value of any article is the amount of labour socially necessary, or the labour time socially necessary for its production.

We would see that only if we were stupid enough to see that a person is as tall as it is socially necessary for him to be. But why stop there? Why not speak of the smelliness of one's farts as being no more than is socially necessary?  

Each individual commodity, in this connexion, is to be considered as an average sample of its class.

No. Each is compared to the average and either marked down or up on that basis. The price of cotton is 10. Inferior cotton sells at 7. Superior cotton can go up to 15. We also speak of people as being taller or shorter than average.  

Commodities, therefore, in which equal quantities of labour are embodied, or which can be produced in the same time, have the same value.

They may do. They may not. Chances are, if inferior cotton was used, this will be reflected in the price of the finished article.  

The value of one commodity is to the value of any other, as the labour time necessary for the production of the one is to that necessary for the production of the other.

My height is to your height as is the height it is socially necessary for me to be relative to the height it is socially necessary for you to be. Does that answer your question as to whether I am taller than you or, as you suspect, a malignant little dwarf? 

“As values, all commodities are only definite masses of congealed labour time.”

None are. Also your height isn't congealed tallness.  

The value of a commodity would therefore remain constant, if the labour time required for its production also remained constant.

No. The price of raw materials & the interest rate & cost of transport & level of taxes etc. would also be relevant.  

But the latter changes with every variation in the productiveness of labour.

It may do. It may not. If labour can capture the reward for the increase in productivity, then per unit labour cost remains the same. England, when Marx first arrived, had seen some decrease in real wages for certain types of manual labour. This is why about a million emigrated between 1814-1845. But England was also attracting immigrants & had strong demographic growth. In the second half of the nineteenth century there was real wage growth for all classes as well as increased social mobility. With the ending of the Corn Laws, the landed gentry's ability to extract rent declined though rising agricultural productivity meant that there was no depression till the 1880s. However, the Ricardian complaint against the landlords no longer had the same 'bite'. Still, Henry George's theories were welcomed in the UK though, because of the importance of collective bargaining, a modified Marxian theory became mainstream on the Left. Still, Marx was seen more as a polemicist than a systematic thinker. His labour theory of value was interpreted merely as the cry that it was the English worker who had raised the country to greatness. Nothing wrong with that. The English genuinely were and are hard workers with a gift for innovation. This does not make the country immune to structural unemployment but it does greatly ameliorate the welfare effects of economic change. 


Sunday, 26 April 2026

Vivek's Veronica's Polish Notation.



Today, in the steam room of the gym, an old, garrulous, Pole
Very bitter against black girls, thus, my thunder, stole
Telling me of her own myriad poems she mercilessly burned
After a decade of longing & a love all had spurned

Till, one night, she raped the young priest for whom she kept house
& did so again & again- the boy trembled, quiet as a mouse,
Then, she left for London & a job as a Montessori nurse
Babies, the phoenix, rising from the ashes of verse.

Because I'm not a girl & a different type of black
My nunc dimittis can't be taken back
Such the ex nihilo logic of the Rood's Sixth Station
Vivek's Veronica's, Reverse Polish Notation



I asked Copilot to help me turn this illiterate shite into a proper English poem. It refused because of the reference to rape. Yet, if there is a 'Vera eikon' (true image) of Christ then, absent heiros gamos, some such thing happens- if only in the 'virgin womb of the imagination where the Word is made flesh'. Every Christian maiden rapes Christ to give birth to a Christian baby. This is the corollary to John Donne's Holy Sonnet on the Church- as 'Christ's bride- so bright & clear' whose hubby is less cuckold than pimp. 

Dwells she with us, or like adventuring knights
First travel we to seek, and then make love?
Betray, kind husband, thy spouse to our sights,
And let mine amorous soul court thy mild Dove,
Who is most true and pleasing to thee then
When she'is embrac'd and open to most men.


Saturday, 25 April 2026

Dr. Munusamy on Indian Federalism

People who think India is a 'Federation' should also believe that there was no British Empire. There was a federation between India & Britain. Queen Victoria's real name was Vasantha Maharani. 

The Supreme Court asserts its absolute right to 'do complete justice' under Article 142. Sadly, it has to rely on the Centre to enforce its judgments. In other words, even if it supports Federalism, it can only make that support meaningful to the extent that the Union is willing to play along. 

 Dr. Kiruba Munusamy- a Supreme Court advocate & legal scholar- has a good article on the LSE blog which, in a spirit of pure farce, speaks of 

The Dynamics of Federalism in the Constitution of India

The Brits had wanted India to be Federal. The Indians decided to have a unitary state though they had to work with what existed and only gradually change the borders of existing administrative entities. There is no 'Federalism' in the Indian Constitution. What doesn't exist can't have a dynamics. True, I could say 'India was created for the purpose of cat worship. The Constitution of India can be viewed as displaying the dynamics of the realisation of cat-worship on a wider & vaster scale.' But telling a stupid lie doesn't make it true even if many Indians think cat-worship is what Dr. Ambedkar dedicated his life to.  

The authors of India’s Constitution were clear that it was important to have a ‘strong, united Centre’;

& that India should not be federal- i.e. dual sovereignty was off the table.  

yet, federalism is a core part of the dynamic relationship between the Union and States.

Only in the sense that cat-worship is. Did you know that when Mamta sends Modi mangoes, what she is really doing is demanding that a big temple be built for her pussy? 

The enduring question of the autonomy of States in India reasserted itself recently with Tamil Nadu resolutely reclaiming its federal rights amid an increasingly centralising Union.

It has no 'federal rights'. It did have a right to approach the Bench, under Article 32,  to remedy what it considered an injustice. But everybody has such a right.  

It is true that the lawyers for TN urged that the 'basic structure' was federal, but that was not the ratio of the judgment. It was simply the notion that the President (& by extension the Governor) is a ceremonial head. Where assent is withheld there is no 'political thicket' (doctrine of political question) & the matter is justiciable- i.e. the Bench will decide. 

It should be said that Bommai (1994) makes Federalism, as conceived by the British 1935 Act,  part of the 'basic structure' of the constitution. However, what the Court meant by Federalism was what had obtained at that time- viz. no Federalism whatsoever. The Viceroy could dismiss any Ministry he didn't like. Interestingly, the Bench relied on Bommai to uphold the Centre's actions in J&K. Essentially, the Centre can do what it likes if it says there is a constitutional direction of the Central government which is being disregarded by the state government.

In a landmark judgment delivered in April 2025 in State of Tamil Nadu vs Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025), the Supreme Court of India ruled in favour of Tamil Nadu in a petition filed against the Governor of the State, who had indefinitely withheld assent to several bills passed by the State Legislative Assembly.

It may be that a future Bench will say that the 'basic structure' is Federal. But then there is dual sovereignty which has previously been denied by the judiciary. If so, how can the Centre enforce the Supreme Court's directions? Indeed, on what basis would the Supreme Court be able to override High Court decisions? 

Besides reiterating the authority of States to legislate on matters assigned to them under the Constitution of India, as well as the obligations of the Governor therein, the Court also stipulated a reasonable time frame for the President of India and Governors of States to act in accordance with their mandates as outlined in the Constitution.

The judgment refers to the tussle between President Prasad & Prime Minister Nehru over the Hindu Code Bill. The Attorney General advised that the President was like the British monarch & was obliged to accept what had been passed by parliament.  

In an exceptionally rare move, the President of India subsequently referred the matter to the Supreme Court (per Article 143), seeking advice on whether such time stipulations could be imposed on the President and Governors in the exercise of their Constitutional functions relating to assent to bills.

In other words, the President was asserting that the Bench had not already settled the question. 

While acts like the Governor withholding assent and the Presidential reference are criticised as attempts to bypass Constitutional precepts, there is another question: how does the Constitution of India safeguard State autonomy within its federal structure?

There is no autonomy & no federal structure. What exist are States & Union Territories which have legislatures (unless they are under President's Rule) and which have specific legal rights & obligations. 

Article 1 of the Constitution delineates India as a ‘Union of States’, comprising regions that have been organised into States and as Union Territories. While the States have their own elected governments with legislative and administrative powers,

they may do. They may not.  

the Union Territories are directly administered by the Central Government. Certain Union Territories like Delhi and Puducherry have been granted legislatures for historical and administrative reasons.

What the Centre gives, the Centre can take away.  

Under Article 245 of the Constitution, the Central Government (through the Parliament) may make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India, whereas the State through its Legislative Assemblies may make laws for the whole or any part of the State.

But Union Law takes precedence.  

In contrast, the powers of the legislatures in the Union Territories are limited.

As are the powers of State legislatures.  

The governance of these regions is thus divided between the Union, State and Concurrent Lists under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.

No. Governance is unitary. Specific revenue raising & spending are apportioned to different entities.  

In this framework, the Central Government is empowered to decide and legislate on subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, citizenship, inter-state trade and commerce, and other matters that require uniformity among the States.

No. It can do what it likes. It holds all residuary control rights. Its actions are not subject to any test- e.g. whether it is for the purpose of promoting uniformity. It is true, that anybody at all can approach the Bench & the Bench may be foolish enough to make a judgment which the Executive refuses to implement. At that point, the Bench has to capitulate or else be wholly disintermediated. It is important to remember that even if the Bench blocks a particular way of getting a thing done, there are myriad other methods to achieve the same object.  

Conversely, State Governments are vested with autonomy to self-govern and exercise control over subjects of local and regional significance specified in the State List such as police, public health, agriculture, public services, local government, etc allowing for the administration appropriate to the region.

There are 'Autonomous District Councils' in the North East but there is no real autonomy. The Brits had envisaged Provincial Autonomy as the first step to the creation of a Federation. India rejected both provincial autonomy & a federal structure.  Still, secessionists may want to pretend such was not the case. But then, cat lovers may want to pretend that there is a Directive Principle re. cat worship. 

The Concurrent List, which includes subjects like education, forests, criminal law, and marriage, refers to those matters where both the Union and the States can legislate; in case of a conflict, Union prevails.

So, there is delegation, not dual sovereignty of the American type.  

The legislatures of Union Territories can make laws on most subjects in the State List and Concurrent List, especially on routine matters like health, education, and transport. However, the Delhi legislature is constitutionally prohibited from exercising power on critical areas such as public order, police, and land.

How is this relevant? The fact that power of various sorts has been delegated doesn't mean a Federation exists.  

While this division of powers

there is delegation from the Union to the States & Territories. However, a Court may find that a particular action of the Union is ultra vires because of some act of omission or commission.  

provides a structural foundation for federal governance,

There is no division & no foundation what soever for 'federal governance'. It is a different matter that you can say 'India has some of the features of a Federation' but one can also say 'India looks to me like a cat worshipping country. Mamta's pussy, in particular, is greatly revered.'  

the degree of autonomy bestowed upon the States varies according to the historical context and terms of their integration into the Indian Union.

No. They are all in the same boat. None has a 'shred of sovereignty'. 

For example, by virtue of the clauses in the Instrument of Accession to India, Jammu and Kashmir was granted a special status under Article 370 of the Constitution (abrogated in 2019).

In 2016, the Bench said it had 'no shred of sovereignty'. There is a long history of such decisions. Why is Dr. Munusamy pretending otherwise? The answer is that a lawyer may lie about the law if that is in the interest of her client. If she is elevated to the Bench, hopefully, she will follow the law of the land.  

Per this special Article, Jammu and Kashmir had its own Constitution and retained autonomous powers in all internal matters relating to the State except for foreign affairs, defence and communication.

This didn't stop Nehru jailing Abdullah for 11 years.  The fact is the Kashmir Constitution was more draconian- indeed, it permitted the jailing of Abdullah's son & grandson thanks to a law he himself brought in. 

Similarly, Nagaland, which became a new State of the Union in 1963, has a special status under Article 371A, based on the 16-Point Agreement between the Government of India and the Naga People’s Convention (NPC) in 1960.

Hilarious! Nagaland was declared as ‘disturbed area’ in 1972 . The 'Armed Force Special Powers Act' was enacted on September 1, 1972 which gave a wide extension of power to the Armed forces of India making them able to shoot or detain any Naga on mere suspicion of insurgency

Accordingly, neither the provisions of the Constitution nor any law passed by Parliament shall apply to or interfere with Naga religious or social practices, customary law and procedures, administration of civil and criminal justice, and the ownership and transfer of land and its resources unless the State Legislative Assembly approves it through a resolution. Similar special status on different subjects has been granted to several other States under Article 371 in Part XXI of the Constitution.

So what. Such laws existed under the British. This didn't mean their Empire was actually a Federation.  

The scheme of federal governance and the special provisions with respect to certain States collectively demonstrates that the Constitution of India did not seek to establish a centralised–uniform nation but rather a Union grounded in diversity and pluralism.

No. It demonstrates that India was poor and had to proceed slowly. But it killed secessionists with vim and vigour. There was no fucking Federalism. Instead there was a Dynasty much more autocratic than that of England's. 

If so, then why does the Constitution contain unitary features?

It is unitary. It isn't federal though Nehru & Co. had to proceed with a certain amount of guile till the Princely States were integrated & the Muslims & Commies were crushed.  

The Indian Federation — as articulated by the Chairman of the Drafting Committee B. R. Ambedkar, and the Constituent Assembly — emerged from European colonisation and was formed through the annexation of British provinces and princely states, albeit not by mutual agreement but by historical necessity.

This is nonsense. There was no annexation. There was a transfer of power. India & Pakistan became Dominions. Both chose a unitary, not a Federal, form of Government. Malaysia is Federal. Burma, India, Sri Lanka etc. aren't federal. They are unitary.  

With Pakistan already a separate nation, the framers of the Constitution had even more reasons to establish a stronger Union Government at the Centre. This was to ensure national unity and safeguard against external threats.

Indians didn't want a Federation because sooner or later there would be Civil War.  

Speaking of the form of the forthcoming Constitution, Ambedkar, who advocated for ‘a strong united Centre, much stronger than the Centre […] created under the Government of India Act of 1935’, explained in the Constituent Assembly that

… the Draft Constitution can be both unitary as well as federal according to the requirements of time and circumstances. In normal times, it is framed to work as a federal system. But in times of war, it is so designed as to make it work as though it were a unitary system.

Ambedkar was lying through his teeth. He didn't want a Federation for the same reason that Nehru, Patel, Prasad etc. didn't want it. Hindu society needed to be reformed from top to bottom. The more backward areas needed such reform even more than the big cities. Regionalism was associated with feudal customs & practices. Centralization was associated with modernity & progress.  

This suggests that the unitary features that positioned the Union at the Centre and granted overriding powers of regional autonomy of the States under Articles 352–60 in Part XVIII of the Constitution were not intended to be expansive but restricted to emergencies.

Only in the sense that it suggests that Ambedkar wanted us all to worship Mamta's pussy. The problem with telling stupid lies is that anybody can tell an even more stupid lie.  

The Constitution confers Executive power of the Union and the States upon the President of India and the Governors of each State (appointed by the President) respectively.

No. It vests power- i.e. is unconditional. Conferral may be conditional. Since Governors aren't elected, it is clear there is no federalism in India.  

These are authorities responsible for the governance of the Union and the State according to the Constitution, including assenting to bills passed by the Parliament and the Legislative Assembly of the State. When questioned about the Union abusing Emergency powers through the ceremonial heads (President and Governor), Ambedkar remarked that such provisions were expected to ‘remain a dead letter’, never to be brought into effect.

He was lying. So what? It was in a good cause.  

Nevertheless, following the adoption of the Constitution in 1950, Article 356 was invoked to impose President’s Rule by dissolving the Legislative Assembly in various States. On one such occasion, S. R. Bommai (former Chief Minister of the dissolved government of Karnataka State), approached the Supreme Court of India, challenging the constitutional basis of the use of Emergency powers. The Supreme Court, deciding whether Article 356 could be invoked only when the State government fails or when it refuses to comply with directions issued by the Union government in `), held that


Article 356 empowers the President of India to exercise the provision only in case of failure of constitutional machinery in the States, i.e. when … a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. The power conferred by Article 356 upon the President is a conditioned power … [which] should be used very sparingly ….

All power is such where a matter is justiciable.  

This decision further reinforced the basic structure doctrine established in Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru and Ors vs State of Kerala and Anr (1973) which declared that the federal governance guaranteeing autonomy to States constitutes a fundamental feature of the Constitution which the Parliament could not alter, and is therefore indestructible.

This was one reason why judicial autonomy was curbed. For the last three decades the pendulum has swung the other way but this may change. 

As evident from Constituent Assembly debates, the indestructibility or the permanency of the federal structure was not merely a judicial interpretation but a conscious inclusion by the makers of the Constitution.

The opposite is the case. Essentially, after the killing of Rajiv, there was a period when politicians agreed to curb the power of the Centre just in case the Dynasty returned to power. Another way to get to the same result is to have simultaneous State and Central elections.  

They recognised that a Constitutional foundation was crucial not just for federalism to function effectively but also for the working of democracy in India.

Some Democracies have constitutions. Others don't. Plenty of military dictatorships have Constitutions. The thing has no magic power. 

Justifying the inclusion of administrative components in the Constitution, Ambedkar argued that ‘while […] the diffusion of constitutional morality

the Brits have fucked off. We must try to become more like the Brits. Otherwise we will give ear to some Mahacrackpot & our country will turn to shit.  

is necessary for the peaceful working of a democratic Constitution […] administration has a close connection with the form of the Constitution. The form of the administration must be appropriate to and in the same sense as the form of the Constitution.’

Ambedkar dismissed his contribution to the Constitution as 'hack work'. Still, he did his bit for the good of the new nation.  

Ambedkar further warned that even without formally amending the Constitution, ‘it is […] possible to pervert the Constitution […] by merely changing the form of the administration […] to make it inconsistent and opposed to the spirit of the Constitution.’

Like his colleagues, the fellow could talk the hindlegs off a donkey.  

At the same time, Ambedkar was also deeply sceptical of relying on political actors to uphold Constitutional ideals which, he noted in the Constituent Assembly: ‘… constitutional morality is not a natural sentiment. It has to be cultivated [….] Democracy in India is only a top dressing on an Indian soil, which is essentially undemocratic. In these circumstances it is wiser not to trust the Legislature to prescribe forms of administration.’

This was important. What the Constitution is really about is ensuring Civil Servants don't get sacked or lose their pensions no matter how corrupt and incompetent they are.  

This foresight of Ambedkar about the potential undermining of Constitutional ideals through administrative manipulation led to the embedding of administrative norms and federal features directly within the text of the Constitution, rather than leaving them to legislative discretion.

No. What was created was 'justiciability'. Sadly, if Courts are ignored the thing is a dead letter. The plain fact is Judges stayed very quiet when extra-judicial killing was done on an industrial scale.  

This makes evident that State autonomy within the federal framework was not merely an administrative convenience but a core expression of the Constitution’s foundational ethos.

It simply didn't exist, Bommai notwithstanding. Why did dismissals become more infrequent? The answer was the Anti-Defection Bill on the one hand and, on the other, that the Election Commission, thanks to Seshan, upped its game. There is no point toppling a State Administration if you can't capture booths & get your people elected.  

Therefore, on the 75th anniversary of the Constitution of India, it is imperative to reaffirm that State autonomy enshrined in the federal structure is an integral part of the basic structure of Indian constitutional democracy and not a matter of discretion of the Union.

There is no federal structure. Nobody knows what 'basic structure' is. No two benches share the same view. One may say that the Centre has to be more discrete or devious in pulling down an Opposition State.  But, suppose the cretin Rahul gets a big majority. He may do any sort of stupid shit. Only the fear of assassination restrains him but he might decide that his mastery of Aikido has made him bullet proof. What of Tamil Nadu? Stalin has revived the secession threat & Rahul has said stupid things 'e.g. India is like EU' (i.e. countries can secede). Udhaynidhi may be a true believer. Why not emulate the Tamil Tigers? They did well for themselves- right?