Showing posts with label Tim Williamson. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Tim Williamson. Show all posts

Saturday, 18 November 2023

Is Tim Williamson stupid?

Tim Williamson has an article in Aeon titled 'patterns of reality'.  Sadly, reality is arbitrary. Nothing has a 'sufficient' or 'necessary' reason. Nor does reason. It is true that we have to make arbitrary guesses so as to get on with doing useful things. But logic has no magical property such that those guesses become less arbitrary or that some grand pattern is revealed.

Consider the following-

Maria is either at home or in the office. She’s not at home. Where is she?

We don't know.  We may guess she is in the office. But we don't know she is in the office till we actually find her there. 

You might wonder why I started with such an unpuzzling puzzle. But in solving it, you already used logic.

There is no solution. We simply don't know.  

You reasoned correctly from the premises ‘Maria is either at home or in the office’ and ‘She’s not at home’ to the conclusion ‘Maria is in the office.’

No. We knew that Maria could be on her way between the home and the office. We didn't know she was in the office. It was merely a place she might be.  

That might not seem like a big deal, but someone who couldn’t make that move would be in trouble.

A person who did 'make that move' would be in deeper trouble. He would be literally mad. It is obvious that a person who is normally in either one place or the other must also occasionally be on the way between the two places.  

We need logic to put together different pieces of information, sometimes from different sources, and to extract their consequences.

No. We need a Structural Causal Model which can make predictions and help us achieve our goals.  

By linking together many small steps of logical reasoning, we can solve much harder problems, as in mathematics.

No. We link together pieces of math to solve math problems. But our solutions may be fatally flawed because we don't fully understand how those pieces fit together or what further assumptions we are making to get them to fit together. Ultimately, it is verification which matters. Logic by itself can't get you to any substantive solution. Either the thing works and is useful- i.e. we can verify that the thing 'pays for itself' or else you have made an error somewhere along the line. 


Another angle on logic is that it’s about inconsistency. Imagine someone making all three statements ‘Maria is either at home or in the office’, ‘She’s not at home’, and ‘She’s not in the office’ (about the same person at the same time). Those statements are jointly inconsistent; they can’t all be true together.

Truth does not matter. Informativity does. 'Maria is where Maria is' isn't informative. Who cares if it is true or not?  

Any two of them can be true, but they exclude the third. When we spot an inconsistency in what someone is saying, we tend to stop believing them.

No. We stop believing them when they appear deceptive or untrustworthy or up to no good. Their statements can still be informative. But, lies too can be informative.  

Logic is crucial for our ability to detect inconsistency,

No. Everything is always inconsistent or else it is not informative. To test for 'compossibility', not consistency, asking unexpected questions is the way to go. In the case of a piece of mathematics or philosophy or some other type of reasoned argument, adopt a different perspective and see if things still stack up. However, a 'gedanken' can only get you so far. It is verification that matters. But for that you need a superior Structural Causal Model. 

even when we can’t explain exactly what has gone wrong. Often, it is much more deeply hidden than in that example. Spotting inconsistencies in what is said can enable us to work out that a relative is confused, or that a public figure is lying.

This may be said after the fact. If a public figure's lips are moving, it is likely he is lying. If a relative is running around naked with a radish up her bum, we say she is confused though this may be the usual way granny prepares herself for an orgy.  

Logic is one basic check on what politicians say.

Sincerity is important. Logic isn't.  

To put your pattern of reasoning in the simplest form, you went from premises ‘A or B’ and ‘Not A’ to the conclusion ‘B’. The deductive action was all in the two short words ‘or’ and ‘not’. How you fill in ‘A’ and ‘B’ doesn’t matter logically, as long as you don’t introduce ambiguities. If ‘A or B’ and ‘Not A’ are both true, so is ‘B’. In other words, that form of argument is logically valid. The technical term for it is disjunctive syllogism. You have been applying disjunctive syllogism most of your life, whether you knew it or not.

We have been rejecting that type of specious reasoning all our life.  The fact is, there are many types of logic. Some have a 'law of the excluded middle'. Some don't. Also, there can be 'dialethia'- i.e. two different types of Truth. 'Natural deduction' featuring conditional tautologies (Gentzen calculi) and intuitionistic logic may come closer to the way we actually reason. 

Except for a few special cases, logic can’t tell you whether the premises or conclusion of an argument are true. It can’t tell you whether Maria is at home, or whether she’s in the office, or whether she’s in neither of those places. What it tells you about is the connection between them; in a valid argument, logic rules out the combination where the premises are all true while the conclusion is false.

Some logics do. Some don't. Jain logic might say 'Maria can be both in the home and the office and neither in the home and the office'. Maybe, this is because Maria is a customized version of Siri. Alternatively, Maria may have a home office which is actually a kennel because Maria is a dog with aspirations of a type increasingly common among canines.

Even if your premises are false, you can still reason from them in logically valid ways – perhaps my initial statement about Maria was quite wrong, and she is actually on a train.

So, logic is useless. It may have seemed a cool subject when people were looking for a proof that God exists and will really fuck over all the infidels and blasphemers and my cousin the Bishop who doesn't get that the Holy Trinity includes Batman.  


The logical validity of forms of argument depends on logical words: as well as ‘or’ and ‘not’, they include ‘and’, ‘if’, ‘some’, ‘all’, and ‘is’. For instance, reasoning from ‘All toadstools are poisonous’ and ‘This is a toadstool’ to ‘This is poisonous’ illustrates a valid form of argument, one that we use when we apply our general knowledge or belief to particular cases.

 There could be a toadstool that has been specially treated so as not to be poisonous.  The problem with logic is that it jumps to unwarranted conclusions. 

A mathematical instance of another form of argument is the move from ‘x is less than 3’ and ‘y isn’t less than 3’ to ‘x is not y’, which involves the logical principle that things are identical only if they have the same properties.

Some logics have that 'principle' others don't. If x is 'intensional' and does not have a well defined 'extension' then Leibniz's principle of identity fails. Thus, suppose x is the number of the children I think I have currently and y is the number of children I will know I have after opening the envelope containing the results of a paternity test, then, after I open the envelope, x will equal y. I will know that in addition to the twins I had with my beautiful wife, Nigel Farage, I am also be the proud father of Boris Johnson.  Some mathematical objects are 'intensional' or 'constructive' in a certain sense. Indeed, William Lawvere uses category theory to show how they might be 'dialectical'. It is foolish, at this late hour, to pretend there is only one logic and that reality conforms to it. We don't know whether Reality is logical. We don't even know if any logic is consistent without some sort of 'divine axiom' (from the point of view of 'reverse mathematics'). Another way of saying this is to admit that there is something arbitrary about any type of logical reasoning. We aim for 'naturality' but the thing may be beyond our grasp even at 'the end of mathematical time'. 

In everyday life and even in much of science, we pay little or no conscious attention to the role of logical words in our reasoning because they don’t express what we are interested in reasoning about. We care about where Maria is, not about disjunction, the logical operation expressed by ‘or’. But without those logical words, our reasoning would fall apart; swapping ‘some’ and ‘all’ turns many valid arguments into invalid ones. Logicians’ interests are the other way round; they care about how disjunction works, not where Maria is.

But logicians have turned out to be as stupid as shit. Look at Williamson- or his student Jason Stanley. It would be nice if one could sit in one's armchair and make great discoveries about the world. But all we can do is find the arbitrary shite we stipulated for. Logic says nothing can be validly deduced from anything save what is wholly non-informative. 

Logic was already studied in the ancient world, in Greece, India and China. To recognise valid or invalid forms of argument in ordinary reasoning is hard.

It is easy in any buck stopped protocol bound context- e.g. the law courts or the Accountancy profession. But this does not mean that reasoning of this sort gets at the truth. As Lord Coke said about the Common Law, it is 'artificial reason'. We hoped for 'naturality' but only found arbitrariness. 

We must stand back, and abstract from the very things we usually find of most interest. But it can be done. That way, we can uncover the logical microstructure of complex arguments.

This fool can't uncover shit.  

For example, here are two arguments:

‘All politicians are criminals, and some criminals are liars, so some politicians are liars.’

‘Some politicians are criminals, and all criminals are liars, so some politicians are liars.’

The conclusion follows logically from the premises in one of these arguments but not the other. Can you work out which is which?

Nothing follows from either. These are imperative not alethic statements. Jorgensen's dilemma arises. Normative sentences don't have truth value though they may be informative. Even otherwise, where   'intensional' terms which don't have well defined extensions are used, it is always possible to find some 'model' to make these statements look either foolish or sensible. 

When one just looks at such ordinary cases, one can get the impression that logic has only a limited number of argument forms to deal with, so that once they have all been correctly classified as valid or as invalid, logic has completed its task, except for teaching its results to the next generation. Philosophers have sometimes fallen into that trap, thinking that logic had nothing left to discover. But it is now known that logic can never complete its task. Whatever problems logicians solve, there will always be new problems for them to tackle, which cannot be reduced to the problems already solved. To understand how logic emerged as this open-ended field for research, we need to look back at how its history has been intertwined with that of mathematics.

Math, when done by very clever people, is very very useful. Logic isn't at all. Analytical Philosophy turns the brains of those who teach it into shit. 

The most sustained and successful tradition of logical reasoning in human history is mathematics.

Mathematicians like Brouwer of Per Martin-Lof can create new types of mathematical logic because they are creating new types of mathematics. Thus the arrow of causation is from math to logic. Bertrand Russell soon realized he had wasted his time. Logic told him that space must have constant curvature. Einstein asked a disruptive question and saw that the existing theory was inconsistent. Eddington led an astronomical expedition which showed Einstein was right. Godel, who was hella bright, did move from Physics to Math to Logic but became a some what marginal figure- indeed, he gave a mathematical proof of God! He believed 'Logic was in the world, like Zoology', but his system requires an 'Absolute Proof'. Like 'natural proofs' (which require a way to distinguish random from pseudo-random) these don't seem to exist. We are stuck with arbitrariness or some category theoretical 'dialectical' approach. This does mean that great advances can be made but they pay-off is better tech not better armchair Pundits able to pronounce on questions of ethics or political philosophy. 

Its results are applied in the natural and social sciences too, so those sciences also ultimately depend on logic.

Logic is a by product of mathematics though it has an independent genealogy in law and the rhetoric used by statesmen to sway the Assembly. Sadly, logic is badly taught or not actually understood by those who teach it and thus it has been productive of wholly erroneous availability cascades in a number of academic fields. I've discussed the 'intensional fallacy' in Social Choice Theory in a recent book. But there are countless such examples.  

The idea that a mathematical statement needs to be proved from first principles goes back at least to Euclid’s geometry.

But those mathematical statements were already empirically known. Deductive reasoning was being used by architects and accountants and navigators.  

Although mathematicians typically care more about the mathematical pay-offs of their reasoning than its abstract structure, to reach those pay-offs they had to develop logical reasoning to unprecedented power.

No. They had to find more abstract structures underlying different branches of mathematics- e.g. algebra and geometry- this is what Grothendieck called 'Yoga'. It isn't the case that the budding mathematical genius first learns logic and then goes on to make great discoveries. The reverse is the case. They develop intuitions and then may invent a logic to systematize it. It turns out that 'naturality' or non-arbitrariness on the one hand, and pure randomness on the other are grails difficult, perhaps impossible, to reach. Yet progress can always be made on any specific problem- indeed, that progress appears exponential. With Voevodsky, we had computer proof checking. Who knows what new vistas quantum computing will open up?

An example is the principle of reductio ad absurdum. This is what one uses in proving a result by supposing that it does not hold, and deriving a contradiction.

The Nicarguan horcrux of my neighbour's cat must be controlling my brain-waves. Suppose that weren't the case. Then that horcrux would be Guatemalan, which is patently absurd! 

For instance, to prove that there are infinitely many prime numbers, one starts by supposing the opposite, that there is a largest prime, and then derives contradictory consequences from that supposition.

Which is fine because numbers don't really exist. So this is a proof that if there is an infinite sequence of a certain type then there may be an infinity of objects with a particular property in that sequence.  But this is a conditional tautology of an arbitrary type. 

In a complex proof, one may have to make suppositions within suppositions within suppositions; keeping track of that elaborate dialectical structure requires a secure logical grasp of what is going on.

No. It needs sound intuitions of what is going on. That's the reason, we don't expect computers to come up with really interesting conjectures- at least, not yet. On the other other hand, a computer solved the 4 colour problem and found the error in Godel's proof of God.  

As mathematics grew ever more abstract and general in the 19th century, logic developed accordingly. George Boole developed what is now called ‘Boolean algebra’, which is basically the logic of ‘and’, ‘or’ and ‘not’, but equally of the operations of intersection, union, and complementation on classes. It also turns out to model the building blocks for electronic circuits, AND gates, OR gates and NOT gates, and has played a fundamental role in the history of digital computing.

This is an Anglo-Saxon perspective. What was happening on the Continent was more interesting. Fundamental intuitions of Space and Time and Identity were changing so as to permit mathematical progress.  

Boolean logic has its limits. In particular, it doesn’t cover the logic of ‘some’ and ‘all’.

It is extensional.  

Yet complex combinations of such words played an increasing role in rigorous mathematical definitions, for instance of what it means for a mathematical function to be ‘continuous’, and of what it means to be a ‘function’ anyway, issues that had led to confusion and inconsistency in early 19th-century mathematics.

Sadly, these confusions remain current in much of academia. Logic is no help. There is no algorithmic way of distinguishing a well defined set or function from something which is impredicative or intensional. This may not matter if we have good enough approximations for a specific purpose but it can lead to mischievous academic availability cascades which look 'mathsy' but are actually utter nonsense. Analtickle philosophy proved no help at all in this context. Indeed, it jumped on every crazy bandwagon it could find.  

The later 19th century witnessed an increasing trend to rigorise mathematics by reducing it to logical constructions out of arithmetic, the theory of the natural numbers – those reached from 0 by repeatedly adding 1 – under operations like addition and multiplication. Then the mathematician Richard Dedekind showed how arithmetic itself could be reduced to the general theory of all sequences generated from a given starting point by repeatedly applying a given operation (0, 1, 2, 3, …). That theory is very close to logic.

No. It influenced the development of mathematical logic which, however, quickly split into different camps- e.g. 'constructivists', 'Platonists' etc.  

He imposed two constraints on the operation: first, it never outputs the same result for different inputs; second, it never outputs the original starting point. Given those constraints, the resulting sequence cannot loop back on itself, and so must be infinite.

If infinitely repeated- sure.  

The trickiest part of Dedekind’s project was showing that there is even one such infinite sequence. He did not want to take the natural numbers for granted, since arithmetic was what he was trying to explain. Instead, he proposed the sequence whose starting point (in place of 0) was his own self and whose generating operation (in place of adding 1) constructed from any thinkable input the thought that he could think about that input. The reference in his proof to his own self and to thoughts about thinkability was unexpected, to say the least. It does not feel like regular mathematics.

This was a period when 'Psychologism' and 'Logicism' were somewhat intertwined. Dedekind's 'cut' helped establish the arithmetical continuum.  

But could anyone else do better, to make arithmetic fully rigorous?

One could move on from 'finitism' to more general notions of a constructive type. Rigour may not matter in itself, however the discoveries of the Thirties were useful in shaking people out of a naive Leibnizian faith in a 'mathesis universalis'- an algorithmic method of cranking out all knowledge. This, I suppose, was the original attraction of Logicism. You wouldn't have to think very hard or bother with messy experiments, and sooner or later you'd be an omniscient God.  

A natural idea was to reduce arithmetic, and perhaps the rest of mathematics, to pure logic.

mathematical logic. Sadly, it isn't any use outside mathematics and even then its purpose is to show why certain promising approaches are illicit or how a particular intuition can be misleading.  

Some partial reductions are easy. For example, take the equation 2 + 2 = 4. Applied to the physical world, it corresponds to arguments like this (about a bowl of fruit):

There are exactly two apples.

There are exactly two oranges.

No apple is an orange.

Therefore:

There are exactly four apples and oranges.

This is not a valid deduction. It may be the case that a particular combination of apples and oranges spontaneously generates more fruit. All we can say is 'assuming apples and oranges behave in such and such a way, this result is likely'.  

Phrases like ‘exactly two’ can be translated into purely logical terms: ‘There are exactly two apples’ is equivalent to ‘There is an apple, and another apple, and no further apple.’ Once the whole argument has been translated into such terms, the conclusion can be rigorously deduced from the premises by purely logical reasoning.

But the deduction may be wrong because there is a fact about the world we are unaware of. Mathematical logic is fine for mathematics and heuristic deductions made by actuaries or police detectives with expert knowledge of their own field may hold up very well. But it isn't the case that 'purely logical reason' can get to anything informative purely by itself.  

This procedure can be generalised to any arithmetical equation involving particular numerals like ‘2’ and ‘4’, even very large ones. Such simple applications of mathematics are reducible to logic.

They can be reduced to anything you like- e.g. giving kisses, which may be more fun than doing logic. 

However, that easy reduction does not go far enough. Mathematics also involves generalisations, such as ‘If m and n are any natural numbers, then m + n = n + m’. The easy reduction cannot handle such generality. Some much more general method would be needed to reduce arithmetic to pure logic.

General methods are fine provided you have rules of 'restricted comprehension' otherwise you soon end up with nonsense. But kids already know this.  


A key contribution was made by Gottlob Frege, in work slightly earlier than Dedekind’s, though with a much lower profile at the time. Frege invented a radically new symbolic language in which to write logical proofs, and a system of formal deductive rules for it, so the correctness of any alleged proof in the system could be rigorously checked. His artificial language could express much more than any previous logical symbolism. For the first time, the structural complexity of definitions and theorems in advanced mathematics could be articulated in purely formal terms. Within this formal system, Frege showed how to understand natural numbers as abstractions from sets with equally many members. For example, the number 2 is what all sets with exactly two members have in common. Two sets have equally many members just when there is a one-one correspondence between their members. Actually, Frege talked about ‘concepts’ rather than ‘sets’, but the difference is not crucial for our purposes.

Frege had 'unrestricted comprehension'. That's where Russel's paradox and 'Type theory' came in. But everybody already knew that you must be very scrupulous in making deductions on a narrow, not a too general, basis.   


Frege’s language for logic has turned out to be invaluable for philosophers and linguists

useless tossers 

as well as mathematicians. For instance, take the simple argument ‘Every horse is an animal, so every horse’s tail is an animal’s tail.’

I donated a Burro's tail plant to my favourite horse. Thus there is a horse which has a tail which is a plant and not an animal's tail at all.  

You need to define 'horse's tail' as the tail protruding from a horse's own backside and then define horse and backside and so forth. The thing isn't worth the bother. 

It had been recognised as valid long before Frege, but Fregean logic was needed to analyse its underlying structure and properly explain its validity.

But it wasn't valid! Either you have a definition- and then an infinite regress of definitions (unless there are 'atomic propositions')- or you just have a Gentzen type conditional tautology- if horse's tails are the tails of an animal, then a horse's tail is an animal's tail. But this isn't very interesting. 

Today, philosophers routinely use it for analysing much trickier arguments.

which is why they fuck up so badly.  

Linguists use an approach that goes back to Frege to explain how the meaning of a complex sentence is determined by the meanings of its constituent words and how they are put together.

Useless linguists may do so. Useful ones actually know lots of languages and can tell us interesting things about them.  

Frege contributed more than anyone else to the attempted reduction of mathematics to logic.

Which failed.  

By the start of the 20th century, he seemed to have succeeded. Then a short note arrived from Bertrand Russell, pointing out a hidden inconsistency in the logical axioms from which Frege had reconstructed mathematics. The news could hardly have been worse.

No. It was obvious that 'unrestricted comprehension' was stooooopid. Kids learn about this by the time they are five years old. Mummy and Daddy say they love them more than the whole world. Yet, they won't let them stay up to watch a nice movie on TV. It is obvious, that parents love you to bits in some contexts but not others.  

The contradiction is most easily explained in terms of sets, but its analogue in Fregean terms is equally fatal. To understand it, we need to take a step back.

No. We just need to remember something we learnt as small children- viz. context is what matters. At one stage being a good boy means going potty in the actual potty. At a later stage it means not quitting your job as a Tax Accountant so as to follow your bliss as a Dolly Parton impersonator.  


In mathematics, once it is clear what we mean by ‘triangle’,

this will never be clear save in very restricted contexts. A love triangle isn't like the ones Pythagoras had a theorem about. What is an anyon triangle? What about an Ising spin triangle? People talking about triangles may mean very different things.  

we can talk about the set of all triangles: its members are just the triangles. Similarly, since it is equally clear what we mean by ‘non-triangle’, we should be able to talk about the set of all non-triangles: its members are just the non-triangles.

Love triangles, or anyon triangles and other such exotic beasties may be non-triangles in some sense. My point is that no 'natural language' term has a well defined extension. Pretending there is such a set is how you end up talking nonsense. 

One difference between these two sets is that the set of all triangles is not a member of itself, since it is not a triangle, whereas the set of all non-triangles is a member of itself, since it is a non-triangle. More generally, whenever it is clear what we mean by ‘X’, there is the set of all Xs. This natural principle about sets is called ‘unrestricted comprehension’. Frege’s logic included an analogous principle.

The problem was much deeper than Russell realized. Mathematical and logical objects are themselves epistemic. Thus their extension is never well-defined. Unless you focus on doing useful stuff, you end up babbling nonsense though your great discovery is made by every 3 year old kid who comes to understand that even the truest of claims- e.g. Mummy Daddy love me more than the world- has to be understood in a very restricted context. It does not mean your parents won't punish you if you are naughty.  


Since it is clear what we mean by ‘set that is not a member of itself’, we can substitute it for ‘X’ in the unrestricted comprehension principle. Thus, there is the set of all sets that are not members of themselves. Call that set ‘R’ (for ‘Russell’). Is R a member of itself? In other words, is R a set that is not a member of itself? Reflection quickly shows that if R is a member of itself, it isn’t, and if it isn’t, it is: an inconsistency!

As Godel pointed out this is just a semantic paradox. He drew attention to a deeper type of 'intentional paradox'. Godel's reaction to Russel became increasingly Platonic. By the Seventies, it was obvious that correspondence theories of truth opened the door either Panalethia or Paranoid Schizophrenia of some type. This didn't mean pragmatic advances couldn't be made. It's just that the associated Philosophy or Logic was 'anything goes'.  

That contradiction is Russell’s paradox. It shows that something must be wrong with unrestricted comprehension. Although many sets are not members of themselves, there is no set of all sets that are not members of themselves. That raises the general question: when can we start talking about the set of all Xs? When is there a set of all Xs? The question matters for contemporary mathematics, because set theory is its standard framework. If we can never be sure whether there is a set for us to talk about, how are we to proceed?

We can speak of classes rather than sets. There is intuitionistic or Martin-Lof Type theory, or homotopic or  Voevodsky's univalent foundations such that there's always a way to do useful stuff- like W.H. Woodin. The philosophy Dept. can't interfere because over the last forty years they have become adversely selective of idiocy. 

Logicians and mathematicians have explored many ways of restricting the comprehension principle enough to avoid contradictions but not so much as to hamper normal mathematical investigations. In their massive work Principia Mathematica (1910-13), Russell and Alfred North Whitehead imposed very tight restrictions to restore consistency, while still preserving enough mathematical power to carry through a variant of Frege’s project, reducing most of mathematics to their consistent logical system. However, it is too cumbersome to work in for normal mathematical purposes. Mathematicians now prefer a simpler and more powerful system, devised around the same time as Russell’s by Ernst Zermelo and later enhanced by Abraham Fraenkel. The underlying conception is called ‘iterative’, because the Zermelo-Fraenkel axioms describe how more and more sets are reached by iterating set-building operations. For example, given any set, there is the set of all its subsets, which is a bigger set.

Zermelo formulated the axiom of choice- a piece of magic by which you can turn one sphere into as many spheres as you like! This is the Banach Tarski paradox. Brouwer was very worried about this. But his system can have something similar.  

Set theory is classified as a branch of mathematical logic, not just of mathematics. That is apt for several reasons.

Category theory may be better fitted to the task. 

First, the meanings of core logical words like ‘or’, ‘some’ and ‘is’ have a kind of abstract structural generality; in that way, the meanings of ‘set’ and ‘member of’ are similar.

That generality is wholly mathematical. This is Grothendieck's 'Yoga' program of uniting disparate mathematical fields on the basis of greater generality. The question is whether meta-mathematics is mathematical or logical. I suppose the answer is metalogic overlaps with meta-mathematics. My impression is that the maths has overtaken both. 


Second, much of set theory concerns logical questions of consistency and inconsistency. One of its greatest results is the independence of the continuum hypothesis (CH), which reveals a major limitation of current axioms and principles for logic and mathematics. CH is a natural conjecture about the relative sizes of different infinite sets, first proposed in 1878 by Georg Cantor, the founder of set theory. In 1938, Kurt Gödel showed that CH is consistent with standard set theory (assuming the latter is itself consistent). But in 1963 Paul Cohen showed that the negation of CH is also consistent with standard set theory (again, assuming the latter is consistent). Thus, if standard set theory is consistent, it can neither prove nor disprove CH; it is agnostic on the question. Some set theorists have searched for plausible new axioms to add to set theory to settle CH one way or the other, so far with little success. Even if they found one, the strengthened set theory would still be agnostic about some further hypotheses, and so on indefinitely.

Which is why there will always be more logics than logicians and more types of mathematics than mathematicians. Instead of a nice neat reduction of math to logic, we have an explosion of both! 

A working mathematician may use sets without worrying about the risk of inconsistency or checking whether their proofs can be carried out in standard set theory. Fortunately, they normally can. Those mathematicians are like people who live their lives without worrying about the law, but whose habits are in practice law-abiding.

This is the old 'Erlangen' type view according to which philosophers and logicians would 'police' science and math. But the latter two burgeoned and attracted smarter and smarter people while the former two attracted cretins like Jason Stanley.  

Although set theory is not the only conceivable framework in which to do mathematics, analogous issues arise for any alternative framework: restrictions will be needed to block analogues of Russell’s paradox, and its rigorous development will involve intricate questions of logic.

Not really. For any given purpose, univalent foundations can be found easily enough.  

By examining the relation between mathematical proof and formal logic, we can start to understand some deeper connections between logic and computer science: another way in which logic matters.

This is where model theory comes in. The intuition here is that 'equivalence' means that you get nothing more out of the one than the other.  This is like the 'matam/vigyan' (doctrine/praxis) distinction in Hindu thought. Two soteriologies may have different doctrines but cash out as the same thing.

Most proofs in mathematics are semi-formal; they are presented in a mix of mathematical and logical notation, diagrams, and English or another natural language. The underlying axioms and first principles are left unmentioned. Nevertheless, if competent mathematicians question a point in the proof, they challenge the author(s) to fill in the missing steps, until it is clear that the reasoning is legitimate. The assumption is that any sound proof can in principle be made fully formal and logically rigorous, although in practice full formalisation is hardly ever required, and might involve a proof thousands of pages long. A proof in a framework of formal logic is still the gold standard, even if you personally never see a bar of gold.

Computers can help here- which is why Voevodsky's work was so valuable. Sadly, computerized proofs can themselves be error prone. The bigger problem is 'interpretation'. The proof might be true but only in an incompossible world- e.g. one where there is 'modal collapse'- i.e. everything that is, necessarily is- or where the only true statement includes all truth. 

The standard of formal proof is closely related to the checking of mathematical proofs by computer.

But the computer's code would also have to be checked and then that checking would have to be checked and so forth. 

An ordinary semi-formal proof cannot be mechanically checked as it stands, since the computer cannot assess the prose narrative holding the more formal pieces together (current AI would be insufficiently reliable). What is needed instead is an interactive process between the proof-checking program and human mathematicians: the program repeatedly asks the humans to clarify definitions and intermediate steps, until it can find a fully formal proof, or the humans find themselves at a loss. All this can take months. Even the finest mathematicians may use the interactive process to check the validity of a complicated semi-formal proof, because they know cases where a brilliant, utterly convincing proof strategy turned out to depend on a subtle mistake.

Consider the 1998 'proof by exhaustion' solution to the Kepler conjecture. The formal proof was  accepted in 2017 by a leading journal after automated  proof checking. The problem with proving a thing by checking every eligible item is that you can't generalize from it. Moreover, is this really 'deduction' or a very painstaking type of investigation? We may gain no additional insight by verifying our intuition. Does that mean our intuition is not very interesting? 

Historically, connections between logic and computing go much deeper than that. In 1930, Gödel published a demonstration that there is a sound and complete proof system for a large part of logic, first-order logic. For many purposes, first-order logic is all one needs. The system is sound in the sense that any provable formula is valid (true in all models).

Though it may be sheer nonsense in every real world context. 

The system is also complete in the sense that any valid formula is provable. In principle, the system provides an automatic way of listing all the valid formulas of the language, even though there are infinitely many, since all proofs in the system can be listed in order.

This is like saying there is an algorithmic way of generating any possible work or, more picturesquely,  there is an immortal monkeys who, sooner or later, types out the complete works of Shakespeare. The thing is amusing but not informative.  

Although the process is endless, any given valid formula will show up sooner or later (perhaps not in our lifetimes). That might seem to give us an automatic way of determining in principle whether any given formula is valid: just wait to see whether it turns up on the list. That works fine for valid formulas, but what about invalid ones? You sit there, waiting for the formula. But if it hasn’t shown up yet, how do you know whether it will show up later, or will never show up? The big open question was the Decision Problem: is there a general algorithm that, given any formula of the language, will tell you whether it is valid or not?

There are plenty. Sadly, there is always at least one case where they will all disagree.  


Almost simultaneously in 1935-36, Alonzo Church in the US and Alan Turing in the UK showed that such an algorithm is impossible.

It is possible for a language which says almost nothing interesting or informative.  

To do that, they first had to think very hard and creatively about what exactly it is to be an algorithm, a purely mechanical way of solving a problem step by step that leaves no room for discretion or judgment. To make it more concrete, Turing came up with a precise description of an imaginary kind of universal computing machine, which could in principle execute any algorithm. He proved that no such machine could meet the challenge of the Decision Problem. In effect, he had invented the computer (though at the time the word ‘computer’ was used for humans whose job was to do computations; one philosopher liked to point out that he had married a computer). A few years later, Turing built an electronic computer to break German codes in real time during the Second World War, which made a major contribution to defeating German U-boats in the North Atlantic. The programs on your laptop are one practical answer to the question ‘Why does logic matter?’

Computers matter because they do cool and useful stuff. Anything which helps guys make better computers matters to them. It doesn't matter to those of us who are only concerned with the practical benefit we receive from the purchase of a computer. Turing was a homosexual. I have no doubt that homosexual activity mattered to him and that, as a result, the British people gained greatly. We were foolish to try to stop him from taking part in such activity. He killed himself. It matters that we stop being nasty to homosexuals because their homosexual activity matters to them and enables them to better serve us through all the good things they do in their lives. But this does not mean we need to ourselves partake in homosexual activities or the nonsense that masquerades as Philosophical Logic. 


Logic and computing have continued to interact since Turing. Programming languages are closely related in structure to logicians’ formal languages.

The former are useful. The latter are not.  

A flourishing branch of logic is computational complexity theory, which studies not just whether there is an algorithm for a given class, but how fast the algorithm can be, in terms of how many steps it involves as a function of the size of the input.

This gives rise to the notion of the impossibility of a 'natural proof' similar to the problem with a Godelian 'absolute proof'.  

If you look at a logic journal, you will see that the contributors typically come from a mix of academic disciplines – mathematics, computer science, and philosophy.

The philosophers stick out like a sore thumb by reason of their bone-headedness.  

Since logic is the ultimate go-to discipline for determining whether deductions are valid,

but they need 'witnesses' which is just like 'verification'.  

one might expect basic logical principles to be indubitable or self-evident – so philosophers used to think.

Actually, scepticism about logic is as old as logic. It is thought that Greek 'Pyrrhonism' was influenced by Indian thought. 

But in the past century, every principle of standard logic was rejected by some logician or other. The challenges were made on all sorts of grounds: paradoxes, infinity, vagueness, quantum mechanics, change, the open future, the obliterated past – you name it. Many alternative systems of logic were proposed.

Fuzzy logic and 'reverse mathematics' both suggest that for any given purpose we can work with a smaller 'rule set'. Sadly, this does not rid us of arbitrariness.  

Contrary to prediction, alternative logicians are not crazy to the point of unintelligibility,

some of the greatest mathematicians were or are. This doesn't mean they are wrong. 

but far more rational than the average conspiracy theorist;

some very bright people are conspiracy theorists. Indeed, so are some very kind and gentle souls.  

one can have rewarding arguments with them about the pros and cons of their alternative systems. There are genuine disagreements in logic, just as there are in every other science.

Not to mention debates as to who just farted. Is it true that 'he who smelled it, dealt it?' Or is it rather the case that he who denied it, supplied it? The epistemology of fart production is a tangled field.  

That does not make logic useless, any more than it makes other sciences useless.

Logic like homosexual activities may contribute to the production of useful stuff. This does not mean it is useful in itself.  

It just makes the picture more complicated, which is what tends to happen when one looks closely at any bit of science.

or analyse the likely source of a fart in a crowded lift.  

In practice, logicians agree about enough for massive progress to be made.

Reinventing the wheel isn't progress.  

Most alternative logicians insist that classical logic works well enough in ordinary cases.

Not bothering with logic works even better 

(In my view, all the objections to classical logic are unsound, but that is for another day.)

But no arguments for it are non arbitrary or, indeed, informative.

What is characteristic of logic is not a special standard of certainty, but a special level of generality.

Godel wanted logic to treat of general concepts. The problem is that 'intensional fallacies' arise unless there is an 'absolute proof' or some other such 'Archimedian point'.  

Beyond its role in policing deductive arguments, logic discerns patterns in reality of the most abstract, structural kind.

but they are arbitrary. Logic can't get its head around this.  

A trivial example is this: everything is self-identical.

Sadly, because of Time's arrow, nothing is.  

The various logical discoveries mentioned earlier reflect much deeper patterns.

Logic is Hell. The deeper pattern here is futility.  

Contrary to what some philosophers claim, these patterns are not just linguistic conventions. We cannot make something not self-identical, however hard we try.

Only if differences are indiscernible. Because of space-time, nothing is self identical unless it doesn't really exist in which case it still isn't because it may be being sodomized by a unicorn in Imaginationland.  

We could mean something else by the word ‘identity’, but that would be like trying to defeat gravity by using the word ‘gravity’ to mean something else.

It probably does mean something else to do with string-theory or stuff more arcane yet. 

Laws of logic are no more up to us than laws of physics.

Only in the sense that grammar is- in other words, a really stupid sense. 

Wednesday, 13 September 2023

Tim Williamson's dialectical dirty nappy

 Words- including words like 'Truth' or 'Meaning' or 'Real'- solve coordination or discoordination problems. During the course of a discussion we may have tactical or utilitarian reasons for pretending words have a fixed meaning for us. This means we can gain brownie points or create a 'hold out' problem by changing or refusing to change our position. I suppose one could call this 'dialectics' but it's just chatting is all. The other guy may appear to concede your point, but maybe he is laughing at you because the game is literally not worth the candle. 

Following Lawvere, it is better to consider 'dialectics' as being strategies whereby 'intensions' change in a specific, non-arbitrary, way such that something like a Godelian 'absolute proof' is approached.

Tim Williamson takes a different view. In a lecture titled 'morally loaded cases' he writes

Dialectical effectiveness in philosophy can pattern in surprising ways.

Surprising, only if you never had a really boring job and whiled the time away by getting into pointless discussions with your colleagues.  

For instance, when apparently morally neutral issues are debated in epistemology and metaphysics, philosophical logic and philosophy of language, morally loaded examples sometimes have greater dialectical power than morally neutral examples based on knowledge from ordinary life or natural science.

In a 'morally loaded' case, there is a thesis or a fact which represents ' a stronger reason' such that it prevails over any antithesis save by the sobering reflection that 'hard cases make bad law'. Also, there's always more than one way to skin a cat.

Suppose there is a kid in your class who is a rich, sociopathic, rapist. He scored highest in the prize essay competition in which he argued that, according to the laws of ordinary Arithmetic, two plus two equals four. Shouldn't we change the laws of arithmetic to deny him the prize? No. We should stab him when nobody is looking.  

One might have expected it to be the other way round, given the contested status of moral knowledge. By ‘morally loaded’ I mean cases explicitly described in moral terms, or at least in ways which make moral matters very salient, as with Holocaust denial.

Which you should definitely do if you are being held captive by ISIS- unless they they think it was niggardly and negligent. Trust the kaffirs to do a half assed job. 

Such cases seem to be so dialectically powerful because they are so highly emotive.

In which case they are emotionally, not dialectically, powerful. You could achieve the same result by breaking down in tears and saying your Mum has just died. All she ever wanted was to see you win- just once!- in a philosophical debate. Mum! I sense your presence! OMG, you are here in this room! This means, today, at last this cunt is gonna let me win!

Relativism

I have in mind full-blown relativism about truth, the idea that when you and I seem deadlocked in disagreement, the bottom line is that some things are true for me but not for you, while other things are true for you but not for me; there is no question of one of us being really or absolutely right and the other really or absolutely wrong.

Why stop there? A relativist would say that you are only relatively you and disagreement is only relatively a disagreement etc. 

Extreme relativists are often unperturbed by the usual counterexamples from common sense or natural science. ‘Anyone who thinks the Earth is flat is simply wrong.’ ‘That’s just your point of view.’

Terms like 'think' and 'point of view' are relative. For some purposes, it is reasonable to say 'we all think the earth is flat'. 

They are more likely to start ducking and weaving when faced with morally loaded cases. In response to ‘Anyone who thinks the Holocaust never happened is simply wrong’, a plain ‘That’s just your point of view’ seems to cast the relativist in the uncomfortable role of defending Holocaust deniers. Expect some convoluted special pleading. The difference in response does not come from a difference in the strength of evidence. Decisive though the evidence for the Holocaust is, it is not more decisive than the evidence for the roundness of the Earth.

The sad truth is that a day may come when it would be truer to say 'Anyone who thinks the Holocaust never happened is at higher risk of being shot coz they are dissing the sacred memory of, the Grand Mufti's friend, Haji Hitler.' 

Scepticism

We are sceptical that anybody really is a sceptic just as much as we are certain everybody is more of one than they might let on.

The sceptic rejects claims to knowledge, and even to epistemically justified belief, either globally or over some large domain, such as morality, about which we usually take ourselves to have significant knowledge.

No. We say 'I know x is gay- coz I saw him kissing his husband'. We don't say 'I know being gay is good'. We say 'I think being gay is cool' though, admittedly, a genuinely cool person wouldn't say any such thing.  

What could be more academic in the pejorative sense than the problem of scepticism? What theory could be further from practical consequences? It does not interfere with a game of backgammon, even if neither player knows that the other exists. The sceptic feels comfortably at home disavowing knowledge that he has hands, that he is not dreaming, that he is not a brain in a vat.

But avowing or disavowing shit has nothing to do with knowledge or, indeed, anything even potentially useful.  

He takes the moral high ground, as the open-minded inquirer, quite willing to believe if only someone would show him a good reason to do so. But when sceptical arguments are deployed against scientific studies of climate change, the philosophical sceptic becomes uneasy.

Does he shit himself? There's pills you can take for that. I'm not speaking from personal experience. There is this friend of mine who often shits himself when he feels uneasy or queasy or- well, the truth is, he just shits himself a lot.  

Again, the difference is not evidential. Those studies are no more resistant to radical sceptical scenarios than is anything else. It is just that philosophical sceptics do not want to find themselves fighting on the same side as climate change sceptics

against whom? Anybody who matters? Is Zelsensky seeking to recruit such fighters?  

when there is a danger of their arguments being taken seriously and applied to a specific case, perhaps with the effect that policy is no longer made on the basis of (supposed) scientific knowledge. For when philosophical sceptics are off-duty, their political and scientific beliefs are very little different from those of their non-sceptical fellow-academics. The slogan ‘Doubt is our product’ goes back to public relations consultants on behalf of the tobacco industry.

That is also slogan of the defence lawyer whom you pay a lot of money for getting you acquitted of a charge of sitting down in Angela Merkel's lap and taking a dump there. I'm not saying that's what happened to me. Anyway, it turned not to be Angela Merkel at all.  

The strategy is not to try to prove that smoking has no harmful effects on health, but merely to create enough doubt in people’s minds about the scientific evidence to make them feel licensed to ignore it and follow their inclination to smoke.

This is foolish. Creating doubt had to do with evading conviction under tort law which however has a  lower evidentiary burden than criminal law. 

That strategy is closely related to the ‘post-truth’ atmosphere of current politics,

No. 'Post truth' was about shouting hysterically because the other side kept doing stupid shit under the pretence that Human Rights or Democracy or something of that sort was being exported to some remote place which didn't want any of that shit.  

which makes scepticism look a rather less benign intellectual force. Create enough confusion and doubt, and people will fall back on believing what they would anyway like to believe.

Why would anyone let you create shit? You have to be entertaining, or good to look at, or have some other power to gain an audience. Philosophers lack any such thing. Also they are as stupid as shit.  

Sceptical arguments in political and commercial advertising are not somehow of a fundamentally different kind from philosophical arguments for scepticism.

Yes they are. Philosophical arguments are shit. Nobody will pay good looking or persuasive people to make them precisely because the 'cognitive dissonance' advantage is lost. Chedi in the 'good place' is cute and ripped. It's only coz he talks Scanlon type shite that Hell isn't turned into Heaven for all the gals who jump his bones. 

They make standard sceptical moves, appealing to sceptical scenarios and shifting the burden of proof to their antisceptical opponents, but in concrete, localized applications, which obscure the very general form of the underlying arguments.

Nonsense! You need to know the law and to make a set of arguments which won't get you sued. This is 'protocol bound' discourse. It isn't philosophical shit.  

When the United Kingdom participated in the 2003 invasion of Iraq, Tony Blair,

a barrister 

then Prime Minister, justified the action by appeal to the existence of weapons of mass destruction (WMD) in Iraq.

Blair knew the law. He was claiming that he had met a legal threshold in making a particular decision. 

After it became clear that there had been no WMD there at the time, Blair said in a 2004 speech to his party conference: “I'm like any other human being - fallible. Instinct is not science. I only know what I believe”

Blair was saying 'guys, didn't you too think Saddam was crazy? My instinct was 'bomb the fucker to kingdom come before he gets a chance to nuke the fuck out of his neighbours.'  

In the last sentence, was he just making the point that knowledge entails belief,

No. The guy was a lawyer. What is or isn't knowledge is protocol bound. Blair was revealing no information which could be used against him in court. He was saying that his instinct was that Saddam was a bad hombre. That was useful to him.  

so if in 2003 he lacked the belief that there were no WMD in Iraq he also lacked the knowledge?

Now, Tim is just being silly. Blair was required to have evidence re. the likelihood of a particular state of the word. There was a justiciable, not a philosophical, matter. 

That entailment has nothing to do with fallibility. The context suggests another interpretation: all he could really know at the time was that he believed that there were WMD in Iraq.

No. All he was required to know was that appropriate protocols had been followed. There would be a document trail for this. He was not required to keep a diary chronicling changes in his knowledge or belief base. 

He could know his own current mental states, but not the states of affairs on the ground in Iraq to which they were supposed to correspond.

His own mental states were irrelevant. The question is whether proper procedures were followed. Suppose he kept falling asleep because he was very old and tired. Then his Secretary would have been given the job of waking him up from time to time. Alternatively, he could have taken a holiday and delegated the responsibility.  

Perhaps scepticism about the external world is not the best basis for deciding foreign policy.

It is irrelevant. A guy with such beliefs might still be the best foreign policy maven we can lay our hands on. Foreign policy is based on making our lives better. It may be that the best thing we could do is not have a fucking foreign policy because, as Obama said, 'America's foreign policy consists of doing stupid shit'. Elect a guy who says 'Europe? Asia? Africa? Those are just made up words. I once met a dude who claimed to be rushing. Yet he was clearly slow in the fucking head. His name was Putin. You can't tell me a retard from Monroe County is a dude, me, as POTUS, needs to worry about.' 

Of course, Blair was not really a philosophical sceptic, but as a practical politician he was able and willing to take opportunistic advantage of the cultural credibility of implicitly sceptical moves.

No. Blair was taking advantage of the fact that Saddam had fucked up big time. By contrast, Dr. Assad hadn't, which is why he lasted so long. Gaddafi, too, fucked up image wise. That's why he is gone. If you come across as a rabid dog, though the guy shooting you may be 'opportunistic' and have mercenary motives, he is acquitted by the court of public opinion.  

In brief, local sceptical moves made for bad political or commercial reasons look much more sinister than globalized versions of the same sceptical moves made for bad epistemological reasons.

Why is this fool babbling about what looks 'sinister' to him? He teaches a shit subject. It only exists because of a bad epistemological reason- viz. the notion that there can be knowledge about knowledge which is like the notion that a fart can itself fart. 

Internalism

The problem here is that what is internal to the internal may be beyond the ken of language which, after all, is about 'external' coordination or discoordination games.  

Here is a still-influential view in epistemology; for short, we may call it ‘internalism’: The key normative status for belief is justification. Whether a belief is justified at a time depends on its coherence with the internal consciously introspectible mental states of the subject at that time, especially seemings, and perhaps other beliefs too.

This is a justiciable matter. It is not philosophical. A contract may require you to act in good faith like a 'bonus paterfamilias'. You may have to convince a judge or jury that you acted consistently and on the basis of mental states that it was reasonable and appropriate for you to have. There may be some wriggle room- e.g. a bare belief may be accepted even if it would have been more prudent to verify it- but that is an ideographic matter.  

Seemings are pre-doxastic; they are neither beliefs nor inclinations to believe.

Unless they are exactly that. This is merely an arbitrary stipulation.  

You have a seeming when things seem to you a certain way, either sensorily or intellectually.

No you don't. You may say you had a seeming but this is merely a manner of speaking.  

Seemings can be false: sometimes things seem to you to be some way even though they are not in fact that way.

Seemings can be any fucking thing you like. It seems to me that the world is the fart of a fart except on Taco Tuesdays when it is the other way around.  

Still, when it seems to you that P, you are at least prima facie justified in believing that P.

Who is to say I am not justified in doing or saying anything I may lawfully do or say? Either justification is about justiciability or it can seem to be but the fart of a fart.  

You are all-things-considered justified in believing that P when so believing also coheres with your other relevant mental states, especially your seemings.

This is an arbitrary assertion. Is it internally self-consistent? We can't know because 'seemings' are inaccessible. So all you have here is an arbitrary assertion backed by another arbitrary assertion. The fart of a fart can consistently fart its own justification. But it can also do the opposite.  

Consequently, false beliefs are sometimes justified.

Kavka's toxin?  

For example, a standard brain in a vat has a justified belief that it has hands, because that belief coheres with how things seem to the brain.

Why bother wasting cognitive resources on having a 'justified belief' rather than just a belief? Justification is arbitrary though it may be required in genuine justiciable contexts of some utility.  

The internalist regards that consequence of the view as a benefit, not a cost. A similar consequence of internalism is that an unconscious bias can result in a bigoted false seeming and so, provided that coherence is maintained, in a bigoted but justified false belief (compare Siegel 2017). We may as well use the familiar figure of the consistent Nazi.

Because we have shit for brains.  

I call him (or her) a neo-Nazi to emphasize that such people are alive and active, politically and criminally, in contemporary society.

Putin thinks so. That is why he is attacking Zelensky who, being Jewish, must be a Nazi- right? 

Of course, in practice neo-Nazis no doubt tend to be inconsistent, but the same goes for other people too. The paradox of the preface, sorites paradoxes, and Liar-like paradoxes all show that it is very hard for anyone to maintain consistency amongst their beliefs.

No. It is easy, as Godel pointed out, to avoid what are essentially semantic paradoxes. Type theories can be as arbitrary as fuck. Intensional paradoxes, in the context of 'Absolute Proofs', are interesting.  Something similar can be said about 'natural proofs'. 

Nevertheless, in principle, someone can have a mass of the most obnoxious neo-Nazi beliefs while still maintaining consistency, and indeed coherence: their beliefs are mutually supporting.

Only arbitrarily. The problem for mathematics is that only a 'divine axiom' gets you an assurance of consistency in the sort of contexts which are philosophically interesting- i.e. those involving open questions.  

In effect, difficulties about consistency are only a delaying tactic. The internalist must eventually face the question: what to say about the consistent neoNazi?

Gentzen was an actual Nazi. Consistency in a Gentzen calculus does not alter the arbitrary nature of conditional tautologies.  

Suppose that it seems to the consistent neo-Nazi that he ought to kill such people, with reference to some totally innocent members of one of the many groups neo-Nazis target, just because they belong to that group.

It was consistent for us to bomb the fuck out of Nazi Germany so as to kill actual Nazis. If morality were capturable as a Hilbert, as opposed to Gentzen calculus, then America would have acted inconsistently had Hitler not declared war first. He thought the nigger jazz loving Jew-nited States would be a pushover for his blonde storm-troopers. He was wrong. 

Moreover, that intellectual seeming perfectly coheres with all his other seemings and beliefs, thanks to the harmonizing effects of his unconscious biases. As a result, he goes ahead and forms the belief that he ought to kill such people. By internalist standards, the neo-Nazi is justified in believing that he ought to kill such people.

Not if the neo-Nazi has no desire to be killed by those he is trying to kill.  

Of course, the internalist will emphasize, it does not follow that the neo-Nazi in fact ought to kill such people, for justified beliefs may be false. The point is ‘merely’ that, by internalist standards, the neoNazi’s belief is justified, and so possesses the key normative status for belief.

Tim is saying that 'internalists' possess some criteria for discriminating 'normative status'. But, if this is arbitrary, it is consistent with anything at all whereas, if it isn't arbitrary, it is only accessible 'at the end of mathematical time'.  Tim then segues into an account of Amia Srinivasan's woke shite (about how an Arab woman gets to call any White Male a Racist even if he is no such thing) which I've debunked elsewhere.



 

Sunday, 14 February 2021

Tim Williamson's unpopular psilosophy


A leading Astrologer writes-
Every intellectual discipline needs to speak to others as well as to itself, both to learn and to teach. If it is getting anywhere, it has something new to say to neighbouring disciplines, but also to the general public.

Surely, Astrologers are very good at telling people- disciplined or undisciplined as the case may be- something new about themselves and the wonderful things which could happen to them quite soon? Indeed, Astrology can also make charming predictions about the future of Nanotechnology and Quantum Cryptography and how they're going to find their soul-mate very soon and then have the cutest itsy baby in the world together. 

Sadly, the blog post I am quoting is not by an Astrologer. It is by a Professor of Philosophy- Tim Williamson- who used to collaborate with the cretin Jason Stanley who has now gone completely mad and sees Fascists everywhere. 

If a discipline has practical applications, it should communicate them where they can help.

Philosophy does not. It had theoretical objections to stuff that worked in practice but this turned out not be helpful at all because Astrologers could make the same point by puckering up their brows and saying 'I don't know. This just doesn't feel right. Mars must be misaligned with Jupiter once again. Tell you what, try rewriting your equations without a cosmological constant. That could realign your chakras.'  

It should also provide points of entry to the curious. Its survival depends on that: if it can’t explain to the uninitiated what it is up to, how will it recruit new members? Politically, it is unwise to tell the taxpayers who fund it “Shut up and give us the money; never you mind how we spend it”.

Actually, this is the wisest course. We only turned against funding non-STEM subjects when cretins like Jason Stanley started foaming at the mouth about Nazis under the bed. 

All that applies to philosophy in particular. A civilized society has popular philosophy just as it has popular physics, popular psychology, popular history…

Philosophy could, as it does in France, concentrate on applying a veneer of 'civilized' paideia to middle managers. Its mistake was to think it could intervene in high I.Q subjects like Maths and Physics. 

So, one might expect the relation between popular and academic philosophy to resemble the corresponding relations for other disciplines. Thus, popular philosophy would communicate recent research in academic philosophy to a wider audience.

But there is no 'recent research' worth the name in non-STEM subjects which can't be communicated by amending slightly a Wikipedia article. On the other hand, there is a lot of virtue signaling bullshit. Meanwhile Category theory has moved onward and upward leaving people like Tim Williamson- or even the late David Lewis or Hilary Putnam- looking decidedly de trop.  

In my experience, a surprisingly high proportion of popular philosophy is not like that. Instead, it sets itself up as a rival to academic philosophy, which it portrays as trivial, sterile, pedantic, irrelevant logic-chopping.

More importantly, it is way behind the curve w.r.t current developments in mathematical logic. 

This popular philosophy claims to be the real philosophy, the true heir to what was done in ancient times. It asks and answers the questions that really matter, going straight to the point by arguments that can be understood with no previous training. It speaks over the heads of the scholastics to laypeople who approach philosophy fresh and unprejudiced.

If it is a philosophy, then, surely, it must have a 'popular' representation? If it does not, it must be the case that its 'Tarskian primitives' are outside empirical or lived reality. But, in that case either Philosophy is Theurgic or has a Technological representation. But, if that is the case, what really matters is Magic or some arcane discipline which produces machines which appear magical to the common herd.  


The message that with little effort one can do better than the professionals is naturally gratifying to non-professionals; it finds a ready audience.

One reason we don't greatly respect 'Mentalists' and palm-readers and so forth is because we know that with a little training we could do as well as them- but we don't want to because the thing is fraudulent. It needn't be done at all unless you are in a dimly lit bar and trying to chat up someone who is happy enough for you to buy her drinks while she waits for her boy friend to get off work.  

One might call that populist message the Michael Gove view of philosophy, in honour of the British politician who, when asked during the 2016 referendum campaign which economists favoured leaving the European Union, replied “people in this country have had enough of experts”—though Covid-19 has changed his public attitude to experts.

The problem here is obvious. Experts were saying different things about Brexit and they said different things about Covid. One might as well adopt a regret minimizing strategy where Knightian Uncertainty obtains. That means hedging your bets and making up your own mind. 


Like Gove with economic expertise, populist philosophers are uncomfortable with the idea of genuine expertise in philosophy.

How does Williamson know? Gove is probably very comfortable with a type of 'economic expertise' which tells him what he wants to hear. As for 'populist philosophers', why would they object if Williamson himself endorsed their work and hailed them as the successor to Aristotle or Kant?  

They may admit that there are experts on the history of philosophy, who understand numerous difficult texts hardly anyone else has even read. They may also accept that there are experts on formal logic, and expert teachers of philosophy. But such concessions are consistent with the populist idea that the apparatus of academic philosophy—all the to-and-fro of point-by-point discussion in conferences and refereed journals—contributes nothing of significance to answering central questions of philosophy, and should be bypassed.

The problem here is that there are too many apparatuses distilling a moonshine which merely blinds its manufacturers. Nothing is commodified. The thing does not travel. Indeed, even the moonshine is dispensed with. Academic Philosophy is an advertisement for a product that does not exist.  

Sometimes I encounter people who take a similar attitude to modern natural science. They say that science went wrong after Aristotle, or send me their theory of ‘qualitative physics’, which bypasses all that boring mathematics to go straight to the secret of the universe. But such ideas are not the stuff of most popular science, which has better things to do.

Why mention what are clearly 'New Age' or Rosicrucian or other such manuscripts in this context? This is old fashioned 'Metaphysics' which bade farewell to the Natural Sciences at the time of Paracelsus.  Some philosophers may find stuff of that sort interesting. Deleuze was fascinated by Malfatti. There are some 'Philosophers of Science' who are into Zen or Vedanta or Guenon and djinnis or Alchemy or whatever and they have their own coteries. 

Philosophy is more vulnerable than natural science to the populist belief that laypeople are just as qualified as professionals.

Williamson understates the case. As with Sociologists and Mathematical Economists, we believe Philosophers know less than we do because their 'Tarskian primitives' are what we use to make a living while they get a salary for repeating some stupid fustian written by a long dead bore.  

This belief derives from the ideal of the radically autonomous inquirer, who takes nothing for granted and uses nothing second-hand.

Nonsense! This belief derives from movies about the private eye or investigative journalist who solves the mystery and gets the girl by the time the credits roll.  

In other words, such a thinker refuses to learn anything from other people.

No. He interviews them but remains skeptical. 'Wittgenstein admitted readily enough that he had no atomic propositions. But he glanced towards the quad where Frank Ramsey used to prance around with a radish up his bum. Who killed Frank? Was it Keynes? Or was it the mysterious Countess Orlova? What was certain was that so long as the Apostles continued their hunt for an atomic proposition, there would be more mysterious deaths.' 

That’s a recipe for the endless repetition of the same elementary mistakes, generation after generation. Anyway, the instructions cannot be carried out; all thinking takes much for granted. The ideal of the radically autonomous inquirer is itself stale and nth-hand.

Ideals can be Schelling focal without being computable. When we find a guy working in Quantum Cryptography or knot theoretic anyons who has a lemma or a theorem which closes a previously open problem, or which re-opens a problem we thought closed, then that guy corresponds to the ideal of the 'radically autonomous inquirer'. He may deny it because he doesn't want anything to do with philosophers- who are widely believed to be shirt lifting cretins- but if you send in the mysterious Countess Orlova and she butters him up properly then, sure, you may get yourself an article which is excellent philosophy.  

A less arrogant attitude is that we all have much to learn from other people, in philosophy as everywhere else. Philosophy is even harder than it seems; the right response to its difficulty is not to trash all the work already done by thousands of highly gifted and knowledgeable men and women. Compared to the size of the task, their contributions may have been small, and often mistaken, but that does not mean you can do better by ignoring them.

There is an obvious problem here. One can survive in a profession by not doing worse than others. If this involving ignoring lots of your colleagues- do so by all means. Only if doing better than others attracts some substantial reward should you try another tack. But, if that involves increased specialization then, in effect, you are ignoring wider and vaster swathes of the profession so as to concentrate on the few who are up your alley. Assuming low barriers to entry, you end up with 'monopolistic competition'- i.e. lots of product differentiation but also plenty of 'spare capacity'. But that 'spare capacity' drives down admission standards which in turn erodes barriers to entry yet further. The thing becomes a repugnancy market. So those at the cognitive top-end feel they have to move to some more prestigious field or else re-invent themselves as 'public intellectuals' pushing middle brow shite with some soi disant 'ideological' edge. But this soon cashes out as paranoid ranting -a la Jason Stanley. Why ridicule Gove when you can call Trump a Nazi? 

Sunday, 6 January 2019

The Normative status of Logic

A Logic is a set of rules yielding valid inferences provided the conditional tautologies on which they are based are themselves true. Such rules are not value judgments. We don't say the 'excluded middle' rule is very naughty coz it is excluding the middle from its snobby playgroup. We might say, as the Intuitionists do, that it permits illegitimate inferences and thus should be discarded. But that is not because the rule is naughty but because the inferences it permits are defective.

Can a Logic have a 'normative status'? If so, why not a particular number system- Arabic rather than Hindu- or an alphabet- Latin against Devnagari?

Currently, we think 'Logical Pluralism' is 'normative'- in the sense of being useful and conforming to real world doxastic reasoning- and, moreover, that Dialethia & paraconsistent logics can permit superior pragmatics.

Given these considerations, it seems strange that there are some academics who still think it worthwhile to go on gassing on about the soi disant 'normative status of logic'.

Consider the following introductory paragraph from the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy on this subject-

We consider it to be a bad thing to be inconsistent. Similarly, we criticize others for failing to appreciate (at least the more obvious) logical consequences of their beliefs.
Is this really true? No doubt, as small children we accuse our parents of being inconsistent because the want us 'to do as they say, not do as they do'. However, we soon outgrow such childishness. By the time we are in High School, we have learned to feel contempt for the kid who is constantly putting his hand up to show he is smarter than the teacher coz of some supposed inconsistency in what she is saying.
But, the thing is puerile. We understand that the 'Structural Causal Model' being invoked is merely heuristic; it is deliberately under-specified for reasons of communicative economy, and thus applying Logic to it won't get us to valid inferences.  Instead, they will make us stupider and more obstreperous than our ignorance would otherwise militate for.

It is not the case that we act inconsistently when our SCM is underspecified and our 'cheap talk' reasoning does not conform to any 'logical structure' upon that model simply because it would be too cognitively costly to bother.

The Stanford article, takes the opposite view-
In both cases there is a failure to conform one’s attitudes to logical strictures.
 Logical structures only exist upon a fully specified SCM which may itself not be effectively 'computable'- i.e. have an accessible mathematical representation. Still, they can give us an idea of the direction in which a Schelling focal solution to a coordination problem exists. Attitudes orient us towards those focal points and have mimetic value. There is no great metaphysical 'scandal' or epistemological 'failure' here. The thing is economic simply.
We generally take agents who fall short of the demands of logic to be rationally defective.
Nonsense! I can't put my wife in a lunatic asylum just because I think her to be 'rationally defective' in preferring to sleep with much  uglier and poorer men than myself, protesting all the while that she cares about me deeply and wants us to work on our marriage.
This suggests that logic has a normative role to play in our rational economy; it instructs us how we ought or ought not to think or reason.
 This is the suggestion of our bad angel who will cause us to fuck up every relationship we get into. A sociopath or paranoiac may be able to 'reason' much more logically than we can. A Computer may be wholly logical in its operations and yet come to crazy conclusions.

The test of how we ought or ought not to think or reason is empirical. If we are successful in pursuing the sort of aims a Court would find it 'reasonable' for us to have, then we are not 'rationally defective' even if we claim that our actions are based upon Astrology or Numerology or some other such 'rationally defective' belief system.
The notion that logic has such a normative role to play is deeply anchored in the way we traditionally think about and teach logic. To consider just two examples, Kant characterizes what he calls “pure general” logic as embodying the “absolutely necessary rules of thought without which there can be no employment whatsoever of the understanding” (A52/B76), which instruct us not “how the understanding is and thinks” but “how it ought to proceed” (Kant 1974 [1800]: 16).
But Kant came to crazy conclusions- e.g. slavery was cool but wanking was a terrible violation of Human Freedom.

How thought ought to proceed is something we can only decide by looking at the likely outcome of actions based on that thought.

Of course, Logic could be normative, if we live in an Occasionalist Universe (i.e. one where everything is pre-ordained) governed by a crazy God who will punish us horribly in the after-life if we don't think the way He has decided we ought to.
Similarly, Frege, in his vehement opposition to the psychologistic tendencies of his time, classifies logic, “like ethics” as a “normative science” (Frege 1897/1979: 228), one whose laws “prescribe universally how one should think if one is to think at all” (Frege 1893/1903/2009: xv).
But Frege's project collapsed because of Godel & Tarski & Turing and so forth. Logic is not a 'normative science' because it can't include its own metalanguage and thus attach a normative label to its own operations.
This entry is concerned with the question as to whether the tradition and the intuitions that appear to underwrite it are correct. In other words, it is concerned with the question as to whether logic has normative authority over us? And if so, in what sense exactly it can be said to do so?

The  question is a foolish one. The answer is no; logic has no 'normative authority' over us. No logician has ever claimed it does or can do. Logic itself can't contain its own meta-language- i.e. it isn't normative even with respect to itself.

Let us see how a worthless branch of the Academy can continue to pretend otherwise.
Before we can hope to make any headway with these questions a number of clarifications are in order. First and foremost, in asking after the normative status of logic, we had better get clearer on what we mean by “logic”. For present purposes, I will take a logic to be a specification of a relation of logical consequence on a set of truth-bearers.

Since 'a truth-bearer is an entity that is said to be either true or false and nothing else' and if propositions are 'modally neutral'- i.e. don't differentiate between possible worlds and thus have no description as a probability distribution- they are themselves the output, or logical consequence, of the operation of a system of logic.

What is the point of defining something in terms of itself?  If I say- 'I will take a boojandi to be a specification of a relationship of boojandiness on a set of boojandis' - in what manner have I clarified the nature of a boojandi? 

By contrast, if we say that a Logic specifies the set of valid inferences that can be made from a given Structural Causal Model which has an axiomatic representation, then though my statement is defeasible, it is not self-referential or, practically, meaningless.

 Furthermore, because, an Intuitionist or Fuzzy Logic, or Bayesian approach, can be 'observationally equivalent' to one which features 'truth bearers', it is foolish to 'take Logic to be' something it doesn't necessarily have to be.
Moreover, I will assume consequence relations to necessarily preserve truth in virtue of logical form.
Why assume that paradoxes, fallacies, or cases of undecidability never arise? The history of mathematics shows the opposite to be the case.
For simplicity, I will use “⊨” to denote such a consequence relation. My default assumption will be to take the double turnstile to denote the semantic consequence relation of the classical first-order predicate calculus. But not much hangs on this. Partisans of other types of non-classical consequence relations may read “⊨” as referring to their preferred consequence relation.

So, the 'default assumption' here is that we are dealing with a set of truths- some of which are given, others of which are logically inferred- valid in all possible worlds.
But, if we lived in a world where we had access to such truths, why would we need a concept of 'normativity'? Consider the story of Moses and Al Khidr. The former sees the latter doing 'bad' things. But the latter know the truth about everything. What appears to 'bad' is actually 'good' because Al Khidr knows the future. Indeed, he is univocal with the Occasionalist God of Ghazali.

Presumably, if logic is normative for thinking or reasoning, its normative force will stem, at least in part, from the fact that truth bearers which act as the relata of our consequence relation and the bearers of other logical properties are identical to (or at least are very closely related in some other way) to the objects of thinking or reasoning: the contents of one’s mental states or acts such as the content of one’s beliefs or inferences, for example.
How can 'the normative force' of anything stem from something impossible- viz. truth-bearers existing as 'objects of thinking or reasoning'? Why think or reason about something true in all possible worlds? It is a waste of cognitive resources.

Norms exist because of Uncertainty, Information asymmetry & the Stochastic nature of 'regret minimization'.

What is the point of assuming none of these exist? Can anything more foolish be asserted? Yes- look at this next sentence-
For present purposes I will assume the identity between truth-bearers and the contents of our attitudes, and I will assume them to be propositions.
Wow! My attitude of contempt towards this article arises because I somehow have access to 'truth-bearers' which assert that Philosophy is shite in all possible worlds!

However, no such 'truth-bearers' can exist. Still, there is a sense in which Logic is normative. There are 'focal point' solutions to coordination games- things like Courts of Law where disputes can be adjudicated- and protocol bound 'juristic' reasoning is normative in such places. People have to show that they acted as a 'reasonable person' would do and this necessarily entails casting their assertions in a coherent logical form.

Academic Philosophy, it seems, takes a different view-

.. let us ask what it is that logic is normative for, if indeed it is normative. The paradigmatic objects of normative appraisal are actions, behaviors or practices. What, then, is the activity or practice that logical norms apply to?
2.1 Logic as normative for reasoning
One response—perhaps the most common one—is that logic sets forth norms for (theoretical) reasoning.
 'Norms are concepts (sentences) of practical import, oriented to effecting an action, rather than conceptual abstractions that describe, explain, and express.'
A logic- i.e. a set of rules for valid inference- can't cause us to do theoretical reasoning instead of watching Kung Fu videos. By contrast, Mom hitting you with a rolling pin and threatening to break your legs if you fail your exams and don't go off to College, is setting forth a norm- viz. watching Kung Fu videos is naughty. You ought to be studying instead.
Unlike thinking, which might consist merely of disconnected sequences of conceptual activity, reasoning is presumably a connected, usually goal-directed, process by which we form, reinstate or revise doxastic attitudes (and perhaps other types of states) through inference.
Not necessarily. Reasoning can be wholly mimetic. Indeed, in its origins, it always is. Furthermore, it always has a strategic aspect.
Consider the following two examples of how logic might give rise to norms. First, suppose I am trying to find Ann and that I can be sure that Ann is either in the museum or at the concert.
If you are trying to find Ann, you must think you ought to find Ann. That is a norm. But it has nothing to do with any system of logic.
I am now reliably informed that she is not in the museum. Using logic, I conclude that Ann is at the concert.
This is not a safe conclusion. Ann may be planning to leave the concert and teleport to the museum the moment she is reliably informed that you have been reliably informed that she is not in the museum.
Thus, by inferring in conformity with the valid (by the standards of classical logic) logical principle of disjunctive syllogism, I have arrived at a true belief about Ann’s whereabouts.
No you haven't.
Second, if I believe that Ann is either at the concert or the museum, while at the same time disbelieving both of the disjuncts, it would seem that there is a tension in my belief set, which I have reason to rectify by revising my beliefs appropriately.
Tension in one's belief set is not a good reason to do something foolish. 'Rectifying and revising my beliefs' w.r.t something which does not concern me at all is foolish. It involves an opportunity cost. Suppose I skip work coz I'm rectifying and revising my beliefs about the ancient Aztecs, I'll get fired and end up a homeless bum.

There is a norm for not thinking about stupid shite. There is none which forbids me having incompatible beliefs- e.g. that we evolved by Natural Selection and also possess immortal souls endowed by a Divine Creator.  Why? Normativity can only exist if Dialethia prevails.
Logic may thus be thought to normatively constrain the ways we form and revise doxastic attitudes.
No. If Logic can normatively constrain its own operations then Godel & Tarski & Turning an so forth must have been wrong- i.e. Logic must be wrong.
And it does so, presumably, in our everyday cognitive lives (as in our example), as well as in the context of more self-conscious forms of theoretical inquiry, as in mathematics, the sciences, law, philosophy and so on, where its normative grip on us would seem to be even tighter.
Sheer nonsense. Bayesian Decision, or Learning, theory, not Logic, explicates such 'normative constraints' which can lead to cognitive biases. What matters is getting to a better specified Structural Causal Model rather than making inferences on the basis of a foolish caricature of one.

Thought may have an algorithmic expression. But, most often, to achieve robustness, it is likely to be non-linear, use 'oracles', and have a stochastic 'regret minimizing' representation.

It simply can't be logical for purely mathematical reasons well known since the early Seventies. Yet, academic philosophers, pretending otherwise, can write of-


 Logic as constitutively normative for thought
 In other words, if a thought has a logical form then it quite properly becomes action guiding. Thus, if you have the thought- cake exists to be eaten, there is a cake in the fridge- then you should eat the cake even if Mom will beat you for ruining her dinner party.
Other philosophers have taken the normativity of logic to kick in at an even more fundamental level. According to them, the normative force of logic does not merely constrain reasoning, it applies to all thinking. The thesis deserves our attention both because of its historical interest—it has been attributed in various ways to Kant, Frege and Carnap[6]—and because of its connections to contemporary views in epistemology and the philosophy of mind. 
To get a better handle on the thesis in question, let us agree to understand “thought” broadly as conceptual activity. Judging, believing, inferring, for example, are all instances of thinking in this sense. It may seem puzzling at first how logic is to get a normative grip on thinking: Why merely by engaging in conceptual activity should one automatically be answerable to the strictures of logic? After all, at least on the picture of thought we are currently considering, any disconnected stream-of-consciousness of imaginings qualifies as thinking. One answer is that logic is thought to put forth norms that are constitutive for thinking. That is, in order for a mental episode to count as an episode of thinking at all, it must, in a sense to be made precise, be “assessable in light of the laws of logic” (MacFarlane 2002: 37). Underlying this thesis is a distinction between two types of rules or norms: constitutive ones and regulative ones.
The distinction between regulative and constitutive norms is Kantian at root. Here, however, I refer primarily to a related distinction due to John Searle. According to Searle, regulative norms “regulate antecedently or independently existing forms of behavior”, such as rules of etiquette or traffic laws. Constitutive norms, by contrast create or define new forms of behavior. The rules of football or chess, for example, do not merely regulate playing football or chess but as it were they create the very possibility of playing such games. 
Logic can be neither constitutive nor regulative of itself- at least, that is its own verdict on itself. Thus either it isn't 'thinking' or else it can't regulate or constitute even thinking about itself- let alone anything else.

Take the case of traffic rules. While I ought to abide by traffic rules in normal circumstances, I can choose to ignore them. Of course, rowdy driving in violation of the traffic code might well get me in trouble. Yet no matter how cavalier my attitude towards traffic laws is, my activity still counts as driving. Contrast this with the rules governing the game of chess. I cannot in the same way opt out of conforming to the rules of chess while continuing to count as playing chess; in systematically violating the rules of chess and persisting in doing so even in the face of criticism, I forfeit my right to count as partaking in the activity of playing chess.
Yet we know that a rigid designation of 'chess playing' must have featured chess players- probably the greatest ones of their time- who did precisely that without 'forfeiting' the right to 'count as partaking in the activity of playing chess'.

If I am asked to play chess with a 5 year old child, I insist the little fellow handicap himself by removing those horsy things which frighten me. Since little kids enjoy humiliating elderly Uncles, they comply and win anyway, though I cheat incessantly.
Unless one’s moves are appropriately assessable in light of the rules of chess, one’s activity does not qualify as playing chess.
They may do, if you are a 5 year old kid determined to show that the boring old Uncle is completely stupid.
According to the constitutive conception of logic’s normativity the principles of logic are to thought what the rules of chess are to the game of chess: I cannot persistently fail to acknowledge that the laws of logic set standards of correctness for my thinking without thereby jeopardizing my status as a thinker (i.e., someone presently engaged in the act of thinking).
Two important clarifications are in order. For one, on its most plausible reading, the thesis of the constitutive normativity of logic for thought must be understood so as to leave room for the possibility of logical error: an agent’s mental activity may continue to count as thinking, despite his committing logical blunders.
That is, although one may at times (perhaps even frequently and systematically) stray from the path prescribed by logic in one’s thinking, one nevertheless counts as a thinker provided one appropriately acknowledges logic’s normative authority over one’s thinking. Consider again the game of chess. In violating the rules of chess, deliberately or out of ignorance, I can plausibly still be said to count as playing chess, so long, at least, as I acknowledge that my activity is answerable to the rules; for example, by being disposed to correct myself when an illegal move is brought to my attention. Similarly, all that is necessary to count as a thinker is to be sensitive to the fact that my practice of judging, inferring, believing, etc., is normatively constrained by the laws of logic. It is not easy to specify, in any detail, what the requisite acknowledgment or sensitivity consists in. A reasonable starting point, however, is provided by William Taschek who, in his interpretation of Frege, proposes that acknowledging the categorical authority of logic will involve one’s possessing a capacity to recognize—when being sincere and reflective, and possibly with appropriate prompting—logical mistakes both in one’s own judgmental and inferential practice and that of others. 
So what? With hindsight, one could do the same for the 'categorical authority' of Astrology or Numerology or the I Ching or the Grand Wizard or the Great Leader or anyone or anything real or imaginary that can be named or alluded to.


A second point of clarification is that the agent need not be able to explicitly represent to herself the logical norms by which she is bound.
So, if captured by ISIS, I can show that I've always acted as true adherent of their abhorrent creed though I can't say what it is.
For instance, it may be that my reasoning ought to conform to disjunctive syllogism in appropriate ways. I may be able to display the right kind of sensitivity to the principle by which I am bound (with the right prompting if need be), without my having to possess the conceptual resources to entertain the metalogical proposition that ¬A,A∨B⊨B¬A,A∨B⊨B. Nor must I otherwise explicitly represent that proposition and the normative constraint to which it gives rise.
With these clarifications in place, let us turn to a central presupposition of the approach I have been sketching. What is being presupposed, of course, is a conception of thinking that does not reduce to brute psychological or neurophysiological processes or events. If this naturalistic level of description were the only one available, the constitutive account of the normativity of logic would be a non-starter.
It is a non-starter iff Godel, Tarski, Turing et al were bag logicians. Watering down what 'constitutive' means turns it into a 'use as you like' word.  Anything at all can be said to be constitutive of anything else.

What is being presupposed, therefore, is the permissibility of irreducibly normative levels of descriptions of our mental lives.
Why not 'irreducibly Catholic', or 'irreducibly Freudian', or 'irreducibly Marxian' levels of descriptions of our mental lives?

These things are 'impermissible' because they are the stuff that cults and totalitarian dictators use to turn people into amoral robots.
In particular, it is assumed that the boundary between the kinds of mental activity that constitute thinking and other kinds of mental activity (non-conceptual activity like being in pain, for instance) is a boundary best characterizable in normative terms.
Why make such a foolish assumption? What is sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander. If there is a boundary 'best characterizable in normative terms', then there can be another boundary some one with superior autocritas (derivable, perhaps, in a coercive manner) between who can use those normative terms to direct others and those who must hear and obey.

This is not to deny that much can be learned about mental phenomena through descriptions that operate at different, non-normative levels—the “symbolic” or the neurological level of description, say—the claim is merely that if we are interested in demarcating conceptual activity from other types of mental phenomena, we should look to the constitutive norms governing it.
If the information set can be usefully enlarged by looking on the other side of the boundary, then the boundary can't be 'normative'. A Judge can't say 'this evidence is not admissible but we should listen to it anyway'.

If we are interested in demarcating phenomena, we take an extensional approach- i.e. accumulate data and develop Structural Causal Models. We don't look for intensional 'constitutive norms'- unless we are monks living in the Dark Ages.
Davidson (1980, 1984), Dennett (1987), and Millar (2004) all hold views according to which having concepts and hence thinking requires that the agent be interpretable as at least minimally sensitive to logical norms.
'Minimally sensitive' is not a term useful to Logic. A fallacy may be minimally or even moderately, or indeed hyper, sensitive to logical norms but it is still a fallacy.

Also, certain contemporary “normativist approaches” according to which accounts of certain intentional states involve ineliminable appeals to normative concepts may advocate the constitutive conception of logic’s normativity (e.g., Wedgwood 2007, 2009; Zangwill 2005).
Yes. If you are talking bollocks, it is helpful to believe something false and foolish. You can then exploit -Ex falso quodlibet- to give the appearance of logical consistency to your stupid shite.
2.3 Logic as normative for public practices
So far the answers to the question “What is logic normative for?” we considered had in common that the “activities” in question—reasoning and thinking—are internal, mental processes of individual agents. But logic also seems to exert normative force on the external manifestations of these processes—for instance, it codifies the standards to which we hold ourselves in our practices of assertion, rational dialogue and the like. While much of the literature on the normativity of logic focuses on internal processes of individuals, some authors have instead emphasized logic’s role as a purveyor of public standards for normatively regulated practices.
'Public practices'- e.g. the practice of Law or Medicine or the conduct of a Business Enterprise- do involve a duty to act, and to show you have acted, in a reasonable manner and in keeping with established epistemic protocols in the relevant field.

However, hiring a logician, rather than an expert in the relevant field, to tell you what you should or shouldn't do would be very foolish. This is because evidence of what is normative is wholly empirical or extensional.
Take the practice of asserting. Assertion is often said to “aim at truth” (or knowledge, Williamson 2000: Ch. 11) as well as being a “matter of putting forward propositions for others to use as evidence in the furtherance of their epistemic projects” (Milne 2009: 282). Since I take the asserted propositions to be true and since truths entail further truths, I am “committed to standing by” the logical consequences of my assertions or else to retract them if I am unable to meet challenges to my assertion or its consequences.
Nonsense! No assertion has any 'logical consequences' whatsoever unless it is a 'truth-bearer'. But if it is, and if Logic has been perfected, then all 'truth-bearing' propositions can be algorithmically derived. We would have a Mathesis Universalis. History would end because we'd have a Theory of Everything and could change the Multiverse in any manner we pleased.
Similarly, if the set of propositions I assert is inconsistent at least one of my assertions must fall short of being true and the set as a whole cannot be regarded as part of my evidence.
Is this true? Suppose there is an inconsistency in a witnesses testimony. Would it necessarily cause the whole of it to be dismissed? No. What matters is if the inconsistency was 'material' or it threw into question the good faith or cognitive or other capacity of the witness.
Plausibly, therefore, logic does have a normative role to play in governing the practice of assertion.
If it 'governs' the practice of assertion- i.e. assertions are valid inferences from 'truth makers'- nobody in history has ever asserted anything. What sort of 'normative role' is this?
Peter Milne takes an interest in assertion mainly in order to “work back” from there to how logic constrains belief. He concludes that logic exerts normative force at least on the stock of beliefs that constitute the agent’s evidence (Milne 2009: 286).
Milne and his colleagues are counter-evidence. Their 'stock of beliefs' are wholly incompatible with modern Logic- or, indeed, common sense.
What constrains them is the desire to hang on to their salary checks and professorial prestige.
In any case, it is cognitive dissonance, not logic, which causes people to prune their stock of beliefs.
Other authors explicitly prioritize the external dimension of reasoning, conceived of as a social, inter-personal phenomenon.
This is either 'process monitoring'- which has to do with information asymmetry- or 'error checking'. It has nothing to do with logic whose inputs are 'truth-makers'- i.e. error free and unequivocal.
According to them, it is reasoning in this external sense (as opposed to intra-personal processes of belief revision, etc.) that is the primary locus of logical normativity (MacKenzie 1989). The norms govern our rational interactions with our peers. For instance, they might be thought to codify the permissions and obligations governing certain kinds of dialogues.
But, these are essentially defeasible dialogues- not logical at all.
Viewed from this perspective, logic’s normative impact on the intra-personal activity of reasoning is merely derivative, arrived at through a process of interiorization. A view along these lines has been advanced by Catarina Dutilh Novaes (2015).
This view can be given an economic description. However, it doesn't have any great utility. Vide http://socioproctology.blogspot.com/2013/01/this-is-great-mathematician-terry-tao.html
In a similar vein Sinan Dogramaci (2012, 2015) has proposed a view he calls “epistemic communism”. According to epistemic communism our use of “rational” applied to certain deductive rules has a specific functional role. Its role is to coordinate our epistemic rules with a view to maximizing the efficiency of our communal epistemic practices. On the basis of this view, he then elaborates an argument for the pessimistic conclusion that no general theory of rationality is to be had.
This is perfectly reasonable. That is why, for this academic availability cascade to trundle on, the 'bulk of the literature' must ignore it and carry on regardless.
We will here follow the bulk of the literature in asking after the normative role logic might play in reasoning understood as an intra-personal activity. Yet, much of the discussion to follow applies mutatis mutandis to the other approaches.
The Encyclopedia article next takes up Gilbert Harman's sensible assertion that reasoning is wholly distinct from deductive logic. It is stupid to pretend otherwise.

The author takes a typically perverse view-
saying that deductive logic and theories of reasoning are distinct is one thing, affirming that there could not be an interesting normative connection between them is quite another.
'Interesting normative connections' can be made between anything and everything. By refusing to make these connections, we save ourselves from talking or listening to shite.
As a first stab at articulating such a connection, we might try the following simple line of thought: theoretical reasoning aims to provide an accurate representation of the world.
Nonsense! Theoretical reason may be wholly ontologically dysphoric. Practical reason aims at a more useful representation of the world.
We accurately represent the world by having true (or perhaps knowledgeable) beliefs and by avoiding false ones.
Rubbish! A Cartographer who produces a better map might also have absurd beliefs. There is no necessary connection between 'representation' and doxastic states. I may not be able to accurately paint this beautiful sun-set whereas you might be able to do so, yet consider the result to be trashy kitsch.
But our doxastic states have contents—propositions—and these contents stand in certain logical relations to one another.
Quite false! I believe my Mom to be the best cook in the world though I acknowledge that she used less salt than is proper because my father's side of the family had a history of high blood pressure.
Having an awareness of these logical relations would appear to be conducive to the end of having true beliefs and so is relevant to theoretical reasoning.
It does not so appear to anyone with even the slightest knowledge of the history of philosophy.
In particular, the logical notions of consequence and consistency seem to be relevant. If I believe truly, the truth of my belief will carry over to its logical consequences.
And you will be truly damned.
Conversely, if my belief entails a falsehood it cannot be true.
So what? Beliefs only have strategic, that is survival, value if they aren't true. All our loving relationships are based on it being common knowledge that we think the other to be the bestest Mommy or Baby or Cutie-pie ever. We may not know the exact weight and height of the other- indeed, it is possible to love a person for many years without being able to say what color their eyes are- but that is irrelevant. Beliefs are a first step to, not Truth, but Faith.
Similarly, if the set of propositions I believe (in general or in a particular domain) is inconsistent, they cannot possibly afford an accurate representation of the world;
If you believe this then you can't believe a set of propositions accurately represents what you believe because this belief would be a member of that set and it says that some other member of the set isn't a member of the set.
The author doesn't get this. He says-
at least one of my beliefs must be false.
Not necessarily- the world may be inconsistent. However, you are still in trouble because at least one of your beliefs is that you don't believe something you do believe.
Harman may be able to agree with all of this. His skepticism pertains also (and perhaps primarily) to the question whether logic has a privileged role to play in reasoning; that the principles of logic are relevant to reasoning in a way that principles of other sciences are not (Harman 1986: 20). However, I want to set this further issue to one side for now.
Notice that this simple reflection on the connection between logic and norms of reasoning leads us right back to the basic intuitions at the beginning of this entry: that there is something wrong with us when we hold inconsistent beliefs or when we fail to endorse the logical consequences of our beliefs (at least when we can be expected to be aware of them). Let us spell these intuitions out by way of the following two principles. Let S
S be an agent and P
P a proposition.[13]
Logical implication principle (IMP): If S
S’s beliefs logically imply AA, then S
S ought to believe that AA.
Logical consistency principle (CON): S
S ought to avoid having logically inconsistent beliefs.
Notice that on the face of it IMP and CON are distinct. IMP, in and of itself, does not prohibit inconsistent or even contradictory beliefs, all it requires is that my beliefs be closed under logical consequence.
This can't happen if logically inconsistent beliefs are possible- i.e. if CON is not empty- because then you have a belief about your beliefs- a meta-belief- so 'closure under logical consequence' is off the table.
CON, on the other hand, does not require that I believe the consequences of the propositions I believe, it merely demands that the set of propositions I believe be consistent.
In which case, if you believe your belief set can be closed under logical consequence, then you can't have a logically consistent belief system for reasons Godel, Tarski etc clarified long before I was born.

What happens if you assume something necessarily, logically, false- viz. that Set theory is immune to Russell's paradox- is that you get ex falso quodlibet an explosion of nonsense. As witness-
However, given certain assumptions, IMP does entail CON. Against the background of classical logic, the entailment obtains provided we allow the following two assumptions: (i) one cannot (and, via the principle that “ought” implies “can”, ought not) both believe and disbelieve one and the same proposition simultaneously; and (ii) that disbelieving a proposition is tantamount to believing its negation.
 For let 
{A1,…,An} be S’s inconsistent belief set. By classical logic, we have A1,…,An−1⊨¬An. Since S’s beliefs are closed under logical consequence, S believes ¬An and hence, by (ii), disbelieves An. So, S both believes and disbelieves An.

There is no great scandal in both believing and not believing a proposition. We do so all the time. The thing has survival value.  What is utterly pointless is appealing to Set theory and forgetting Russell's paradox or invoking Logic and forgetting Godel & Tarski.

Still, if that's what you are paid to do, then, I guess, it is normative.