Showing posts with label Tirthankar Roy. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Tirthankar Roy. Show all posts

Sunday, 2 November 2025

Tirthankar Roy on Ranajit Guha

 Tirthankar Roy has a good essay here titled 'The Permanent Settlement and the Emergence of a British State in Late-eighteenth-century India'

He mentions the theory that the East India Company 'transplanted' European ideas about property ownership to a country where no such thing existed. I suppose it is true that the idea that killing your father or uncle to inherit his property- after a suitable bribe to the Governor had been paid- was an indigenous idea. It is also true that the Brits did not enshrine it in law. But that was also why many people came to prefer British rule. Your nephew- or, indeed, your son- had no great incentive to stab you or poison you save for wholly unmercenary motives. 

In a book published in 1963, Ranajit Guha took the transplant theory to another level. The Permanent Settlement

a consequence of Pitt's India Act of 1784, which separated the political activities of the Company- which were to be under direct control of the British Government- from its commercial operations. This militated for a 'satisficing' rather than profit-maximizing strategy when it came to Land Revenue. In brief, this meant that, where possible, the assessment should be enough to satisfy the State's need for money in a predictable manner.  This was better done by fixing it at a sustainable level rather than constantly assessing output and imposing higher taxes in good times and granting rebates in bad times. There were two reasons for this. The English were few in number in India. They would have to rely on an indigenous class of assessors. But the same problem arose when it came to London's control over Europeans in India. Only a few individuals, connected to Westminster, could afford to focus entirely on the affairs of a distant territory which they may never have visited. Thus, predictability and ease (and thus reduced cost) of monitoring was more important than maximizing profit. 

reflected a doctrine –

that of 'minimizing regret' or 'satisficing' so that one could justify, on grounds of prudence or practicality, one's decisions to those charged with oversight by Parliament

making it highly likely that it entailed a misreading of Indian prehistory.

Indian prehistory didn't matter. It couldn't have been that great. Otherwise the place would not have been taken over by Turks and, later on, Europeans.  

The book does not see it as a copy of English precedence

The word 'farmer' in English originally meant a guy who rents a piece of land, hires labour, borrows money for working capital (seed, fertilizer, etc.) and seeks to produce agricultural produce for a profit. Obviously, you could farm your own land- i.e. hope to cover your 'imputed rent' after paying for labour etc. 

The State, to defray its own expenses, would need to levy a tax on land. The person with the duty to pay that tax on particular territory might rent it out to tenants. They pay him and he pays the government. 

India was no different from Europe in this respect. The 'zamindar' is the guy who pays the State the land tax while his tenants are 'farmers' or 'ryots'. If they themselves rent out land they were called jotedars in Bengal. 

In parts of India where large quantities of wage labour could not be brought in, there would be something like tenant farming for money rents or else share-cropping. Even where a landlord preferred to bring in immigrant workers to work on his own land, he might rent out the rest of his holdings. The central government had a choice between fixing its own revenue demand and letting the landlords sell or buy land or else spending more on collection and charging a whole bunch of small proprietors a higher rate. 

All this has nothing to do with ideology or history or politics. It is economic geography.  

but as a particular legacy of the European Enlightenment working upon the minds of some of the key contributors to the discourse in Bengal.

The European Enlightenment accepted that different places would have different types of tenure. In some place you need a Marcher Lord who lives in a castle and who is backed by his own mounted retainers to ensure that farmers and townsfolk are protected from predation. Otherwise they won't be able to pay their rent or taxes in which case the Marcher Lord won't be able to pay tribute or provide troops to his liege lord. 

In peaceful districts, the Prince might maintain a civil service able to assess and collect taxes directly from peasant proprietors and independent tradesmen and artisans. Part of the revenue could be used to provide 'club goods' of various kinds to enhance productivity. 

The European Enlightenment encompassed Catherine the Great's Russia as much as it did the tobacco fields of Virginia. It was obvious to all that different terrains would have different fiscal arrangements. 

The French physiocrats

were shitheads. Still, it was true that if you raised agricultural productivity then your people would have more food. The population would rise. You would have more soldiers and thus be more secure. Just getting your hands on a lot of Mexican Silver or Peruvian Gold while agriculture decayed and your population plummeted would cause your nation's decline. But this is common sense. Nobody needs to read a book about it.  

regarded land as the source of the wealth of nations, and some of them saw capital invested in land as a risk-taking enterprise, thus combining capitalism (virtuous investment) with landed society (land as the ultimate source of economic, military, and legislative power).

Make your land more productive. Your population will rise. Your Army will be stronger. You can send out colonies to distant parts of the world. 

Don't neglect your land or turn it into a hunting preserve. Don't let the peasant starve. You won't have enough soldiers to defend your country.  

These ideas had sway over three Bengal debaters (Francis, Henry Patullo, and Thomas Law).

Only one idea held sway over them- viz. how to get very fucking rich by getting rid of their rivals in the company.  

Seen in this way, the Permanent Settlement was a colonial experiment to create capitalism in landed property.

No. India wasn't a colony. The Brits hated the climate. Even if some could tolerate it, the Brits didn't want a 'country-bottled' European or Eurasian class to come into existence because, like the Americans, it would want independence.

Guha’s work was path-breaking because it broke the spell James Mill had cast upon generations of writers.

Guha was a Communist. He was saying 'Capitalism is bad. It was invented by Whitey. Whitey is very evil. Now India has got rid of Whitey, it should also get rid of Capitalism. '  Guha emigrated to UK in 1959. He was merely stupid, not mad. 

Most reviewers found the attempt to connect Bengal with Europe, where new thinking on land was taking shape and landlords represented a progressive force,

Roy is thinking of 'improving landlords' like 'Turnip' Townshend.  But then 'Farmer' George was the King at the time of the American Revolution. 

refreshing in an otherwise too region-bound historiography.

Why are historians so fucking stupid?  

Guha showed himself to be ‘.. as much at home in the European world of the Enlightenment as he is in the tumult and confusion of mid-eighteenth century India,’ Holden Furber wrote.

He was too stupid to understand the first thing about either. The cunt must have noticed that plenty of Marwaris who left school at 14 had become big capitalists. Did he really think they had been influenced by the works of Marshall & Samuelson?  

There is a third version of the transplant theory. The Permanent Settlement was later extended to estates in Andhra and Tamil Nadu.

Some estates were given a permanent assessment because the incumbent was strong and well-regarded locally. But 'ryotwari' was the rule rather than the exception.  

Some historians think South India copied Bengal. There was, however, a significant difference between Bengal and South India. The zamindars in the north were the legacy of a Mughal fiscal system.

i.e. the Brits first took over Diwani & then a pre-existing Nizami (tax administration).  

In South India, no one knew what their counterparts were a legacy of.

Polygars- i.e. local chieftains. But some were rebellious. Others were sensible. There had to be 'discovery'.  

It made no sense for the officers to cite ancient tradition.

Which was ir-fucking-relevant. Nobody cared about history. Were the operations of the Company profitable? Was the profit sustainable? That's all that mattered. One peculiarity of the South was the tendency to over-bid on auctions and then default. 

The historian, in turn, must reconstruct tradition based on little serious data.

Not if she belongs to the subaltern school.  

The foremost work along these lines is that of Nicholas Dirks. 

A cretin.  

Dirks says that in precolonial south India, the king’s power was based on a notion of exchange of entitlements with the cultivators and cemented by gifts exchange.

Not to mention hugs and kisses. Sadly, power based on gifts or hugs melts away the moment some Muslim General or British Major shows up.  

Land rights were a part of this exchange system. Inam, or tax-free land, was both symbolic and practical in this exchange system.

As were kissing and hugs. That is why the Brits were never able to conquer South India.  

This partnership was broken as the British introduced private property that eliminated the kings from the scene. 

Because once people had 'private property' they became very hard hearted. Kings would knock on the door saying 'could we please exchange some nice inams and hugs and kisses?' but the peasants would say 'fuck off! We iz British now. No hugs or kisses will be given. Instead we will play cricket and read books written by P.G. Woodhouse.'  

Important as Dirks’ work is, parts of it merely voice a widely shared illusion among historians that the British misunderstood something of precolonial India.

For example, they didn't understand that all Indians were homosexuals. Not only were they hugging and kissing each other, they were also fisting each other with great assiduity. Sadly, the Brits put an end to this charming practice  

No one can show what it was the British misunderstood in this case.

Their rule was not secure. Should they just loot the place or try to build something enduring? What they had to offer was a new rule for, not property, but inheritance. You can keep, sell, or bequeath your property. If your nephew kills you, he won't get it. We will hang him. 

That was a good deal. More and more Indians would take it. The ones who didn't would be either easily vanquished (because their allies could be bribed to abandon them) or else could be left independent- till a nephew killed them.  

The evidence does not exist. In the rich scholarship on the economic transition in Bengal, the debate on land policy has yet to be discussed with the attention it deserves.

How did Roy or Guha's own ancestors gain wealth? Most would have been educated people who rose as 'jotedars'. The stronger and smarter of these could get a lower assessment in return for ensuring the weak paid more. Some such even became zamindars.  

One of the earliest systematic histories skips the episode.

That of S.C. Ray in 1915.  

Narendra Krishna Sinha’s authoritative Economic History of Bengal offers a blow-by-blow account of the actions of the government leading up to the Permanent Settlement but does not pay much attention to the policy debate.

These were guys who were getting very fucking rich. They didn't go in for 'policy debate'. Intrigue- sure. Polemics- no problem. But debates are for losers.  

Two subsequent studies of eighteenth-century Bengal concentrate on the peasants and their conditions.13 Marshall mentions the debate. In this account, Francis and Charles Cornwallis were ‘doctrinaires,’ Hastings was engaged with administrative matters

He wanted to get the whip-hand over the Hindu 'banyans'. Hastings, at 17 had been one such himself. The judicial murder of Nundcoomar sent a powerful signal. Since the fellow had cheated plenty of his caste-fellows, the Hindus took the matter in their stride. The Brits may be brutal, they may eat beef, but they aren't as crooked as our own people. As masters, they were harsh but had some basic sense of fair play. They wouldn't fuck you up just for the fun of it.  

more than doctrinal debates. The delayed implementation of the action plan had owed to Hastings’ resistance to the plan. This is correct but too dependent on personalities. It does not say where the resistance came from.

Why permanently settle with dudes who might disappear as quickly as they appeared? England really wasn't as safe as its people liked to pretend. Indian banyans had contact with French and Dutch merchants who had their own tales to tell. Did you know Cornwallis was defeated by a dude named George Washington? I hear he is sailing for Calcutta to finish the job.  

A short article compiling citations illustrates the struggle to understand ancient rights but does not offer an interpretation.

There is nothing to understand. Some shithead say that in ancient times King came and gave everybody hugs and kisses. Viceroy may kindly take note.  

Sirajul Islam deals with the aftermath of the settlement. Robert Travers discusses the debate in greater detail but does not offer a new reading of it.

There was a power-play, nothing more. Whatever arrangement was made, some people were bound to say the Governor gave too much away or else was too greedy and thus was bound to cause a rebellion or a famine.  

It is fair to say that Guha’s A Rule of Property has remained a kind of last word on the origin question, which is remarkable considering that it was published sixty years ago.

It is remarkable that a sensible enough Economist doesn't get that Guha had goo for brains.  

The long shelf-life is also surprising

till you remember that Bengali buddhijivis have zero common sense.  

because A Rule of Property is seriously limited in its method.

The rule when it comes to raising revenue is to maximize the Present Value of net collection. Britain couldn't send out an army of clerks. Its population was small relative to its new possessions in East India. 

It is an intellectual history, which is the book’s strength and weakness.

Weakness. Fiscal policy has shit to do with intellectual history.  

It is naïve to think that a large-scale institutional change can primarily result from doctrines.

It can, but the thing won't last. The reason the Permanent Settlement lasted is that 'control rights' could be redistributed while there was enough scope for a gradual increase in beneficial rights. The thing wasn't optimal, but it worked well enough. I suppose historians can point to continuities with the system established by Akbar. Bengal relied more on estimates than measurement- which is why the 1943 food availability deficit wasn't reflected in the official figures. 

This point is echoed in some of the critical reviews. Reviewing A Rule of Property, Marshall says that ‘nearly everyone else in the Company’s service was reaching the same conclusion, if on practical rather than theoretical ground.’ 18 ‘Mr Guha,’ said Ashin Das Gupta in a review of the book, ‘shies off from administrators because he cannot fit them in within the pattern of European thought …’ 19 The reviews do not say what practical problems the administrators were trying to solve.

They don't need to. The District Collector was the administrator. He collected money. His practical problem was to remit the expected amount without triggering a rent-strike or rebellion of some sort.       

The political agency of doctrinaires in Guha, and the intellectual agency of administrators in the reviews, both remain obscure.

Better obscure than obscene.  

 An incomplete version of a theory did exist in the late nineteenth century. ‘[T]he conferment of a landlord title,’ wrote B.H. Baden-Powell,

He joined the ICS in 1860. At the time it was fashionable to say the Brits ruled India according to its own ancient laws. People like A.O Hume saw the need to end the Permanent Settlement. Sadly, the Indians weren't enthused.  

‘was solely or chiefly the result of inquiries and conclusions as to the Indian laws.’ 

It was supported by affidavits of this sort- that's true enough. But such things are easily come by.  

Baden-Powell was the most systematic chronicler of land rights in British India. The quotation did not express his views on the origin of the Permanent Settlement but cited the opinion of the historian of Bengal, William Hunter. The statement raises more questions than it answers. What are ‘Indian laws’?

Quranic, Shastric or laws promulgated by Indian rulers. This is how title is proved in any jurisdiction. You show such and such property vested in x and that by such and such law you are the legal heir to x.  

What are ‘inquiries’? Why the inquiries? Despite the openness, Hunter was right to suggest that key players (like Hastings) believed that the Company needed information of a specific type to strengthen its hand in any bargain it struck with the taxpayer.

It needed to put the fear of God into the Hindu. After that it could rely on the babu to do the donkey-work.  

Looking for that data caused a delay. Without disregarding doctrinal influence, it is possible to say that two other things were needed for an action plan to emerge.

The Brits in India depended on the British Navy and Army. Whatever action plan they made had to be one which both would endorse. Ultimately, the Directors of the Company, back in London, had to persuade Parliament the plan was in the public interest.  

An action plan needs theory, information (on practice, precedence), and a contextual justification to take action. If data is weak or missing, action may still happen if the context demands action, but the result may not follow the doctrinal blueprint.

It is fair to say that 'administrators' of all types in India had a military doctrine. This had to do with kill ratios. The Brits could probably fight an indigenous force five times their size and win with few White casualties. But for larger combinations, alliances would be required.  

The historiography I have discussed above overplays just one of these axes. Context is underplayed, and information is overlooked completely. What is ‘context’? All versions of transplant theory, from Guha to Dirks, left the role of conflicts, fiscal conditions, and the challenge of making a state with a permanent army out of account.

Because they were paranoid shite about how Whitey invented Capitalism and Heterosexuality. Prior to the Battle of Plassey, all Indians were Socialist sodomites- the way nature intended.  

What is ‘information’?

Stuff you'd be willing to pay money for because it could make you a larger sum of money.  

A permanent army needed the state’s income to be stable,

Siraj ud-Daulah had 50,000 professional soldiers. But they were shit at fighting. Genghis Khan's Mongolia didn't have much in the way of income. But his army was great at fighting. 

which needed a permanent contract between the state and the taxpayer,

Genghis was a superb contract lawyer. He persuaded lots of taxpayers to sign very nice social contracts with him.  

and to negotiate that contract from a position of strength, the state needed to know the taxpayer’s ability to pay.

Or, if the taxpayer was shitty, his ability to die. Some other guy, using the same resources, might be more productive.  

The accent on information reconnects this story with state formation in Europe and the emergence of industrial capitalism, where, as recent studies have shown, access to information plays a critical role.

Even more recent studies have shown that access to recent studies plays a critical role in deciding they are shit.  

The European roots of the state in India did matter in this way.

There are European states in Australia and New Zealand and America. There are none in the sub-continent. Why? Europeans didn't settle there. One may certainly say that Brits introduced various institutions- e.g. Parliament- into India. But they didn't work in an European way. For a start, the daughter of the PM didn't become PM nor did her son succeed her in that office.  

Let us look at context next. I suggest below that ‘permanency’ had a precise meaning in Bengal, the permanency of British power.

Don't be silly! Bengal couldn't be held if Madras was lost and Madras was mainly ryotwari.  

Directly or indirectly aiming for it would need working on the fiscal system.

No. Getting paid required working on the fiscal system. Incidentally, the Brits would have been prepared to sell off a Province if the price was high enough or the cost of administering it was too high. They sold Kashmir to Gulab Singh.  

In an earlier  paper titled 'Rethinking the Origins of British India: State Formation and Military-Fiscal Undertakings in an Eighteenth Century World Region'  Tirthankar discussed

 'the rise of the East India Company in the contested political world of eighteenth century India, with reference to the manner in which economic power was deployed to enhance military power. It is shown that there was only one model of successful ‘military/fiscalism’ in this time, represented by the Company.

There were other successful polities- e.g. that of the Scindias or Ranjit Singh. The problem was not military/fiscal. It was that a strong, smart, ruler might be succeeded by a stupid, weak, ruler. Also, you nephew might stab you or your general might try to usurp the throne. With the Brits, even if you had a crappy General or Governor, the fellow would be replaced within a few years. Lessons would be learned from past mistakes and young cadets at Haileybury or Woolwich would audit lectures on the topic. It is not that native Princes were incapable of creating a professional army and bureaucracy. It was just that there was little incentive to incrementally improve and institutionalize that professionalism.  

The Company’s strategies, however, cannot be understood as a transplantation of European practices into India.

It was a transoceanic commercial enterprise which set up its own training college in 1806 . Did the Asians have anything similar? No. It wasn't till around the middle of the twentieth century that any Indian company created a professional management cadre, though, no doubt, informally, something like it had existed for thirty years. 

However, 'control rights' tended to remain dynastic both in politics and business. In India, a family squabble in a fourth, fifth, or even sixth generation conglomerate can cause great disruption. This is unusual in the West. Minority shareholders have more protection. There is less 'pyramiding'. Markets play a much greater role. The problem of a cretin inheriting control and ruining everything is much less severe. 

Local factors, such as opportunism and access to the natural resources of the eastern Gangetic were important.

In other words, the East India Company pursued pragmatic policies. But all businesses do so. Indeed so do politicians.  

However, institutional choices mattered, and owed in part to the Europeans’ outsider status.

The Company had to keep getting its charter renewed and thus came increasingly under the control of the UK Government. But 'institutional choices' still had to be pragmatic though, no doubt, the language in which these choices were justified to Parliament might pay lip-service to current shibboleths. The 'outside' force that mattered was the Royal Navy. The Empire was entirely a product of its effectiveness in defeating rivals for supremacy on the open seas. 

Introduction Comparisons between early modern Europe and Asia in political terms are of abiding interest to global historians.

Europe had monogamy which in turn militated for primogeniture which entailed easier and more predictable inheritance laws. By itself, this increased fungibility of assets because beneficial ownership was easier to establish. This also meant that 'control rights' could be 'farmed out' more easily.

Thus, suppose your father, through thrift, hard work and enterprise, accumulated a goodly estate in land.  If you are the sole legitimate heir, you inherit it all. You can easily find tenants to rent out the whole or any part of it. On the other hand, if your father had numerous wives, there may be all sorts of claims on that estate. Till they are resolved, title is unclear and thus the underlying asset is less fungible. 

Some Western countries introduced primogeniture or entail to the closest male agnate to prevent the splitting up of estates. Indeed, they might forbid this- as happened to Catholics in Ireland- so as to ensure that big estates belonging to an oppressed community get split up and, by a process of Malthusian involution, they are reduced to penury and powerlessness. 

Two types of motivation drive such comparisons. One of these is to explain Europe’s precocious economic growth.

They pioneered and then dominated transoceanic trade. Competition between oceanic powers, by itself drove technological and scientific progress. Consider the Portuguese conquest of Malacca in 1511. In the previous century a Portuguese king had imported German technologists who continually made innovations in artillery such that Portuguese ships ended up outgunning much larger armadas in the Indian Ocean.  But then the Dutch proved even more innovative and enterprising. By 1641, they displaced the Portuguese in Malacca. 

As ships from all over the world brought exotic produce to West European ports, value adding manufacturing industries could spring up such that new commodities could be sent to markets where they commanded the highest price. 

Consider Bengali jute. It was being exported to Europe by the end of the seventeenth century. Around 1790, some entrepreneur in Dundee discovered mixing a bit of jute lowered the cost of flax spinning but pure jute manufacture, which soon commanded a global market, only came into its own in the 1830s.  Over the next fifty years, Dundee became the centre of global jute production. The last Jute mill there only closed in the Nineties. 

My point is, if people from Dundee are doing the shipping and distribution in ports around the world, it is likely that Dundee can go in for high value adding manufacturing such that it combines raw materials from the four corners of the globe and sells the product in the market which pays the highest price. 

If your people are mobile and productive, your economy will be dynamic. If they are lazy and stupid, it won't- unless you have lots of oil or gold under your soil. 

And another is to explain colonization and conquest of Asian regions by Europe.

If you are making good money from oceanic trade, you can spend some of that money on securing raw material and markets in anarchic shitholes. The locals may prefer foreign government to endless internecine conflict. Even if they don't, they may be happy to work for the foreign regime in return for a regular pay-check. 

The former enquiry has sometimes followed up the contrast between Europe’s competitive state systems and Asia’s empires, and suggested, as Eric Jones does, that political competition led in Europe to sovereign dependence on capital

Capital is dependent on a Sovereign who acts sensibly. A stupid sovereign- e.g. the Tzar or the Kaiser- can fuck up Capital something fierce. One could say that the sovereigns of Spain and Portugal tried to depend on Capital, but because they did stupid things, their countries declined. Phillip II declared bankruptcy three times, approximately once every two decades, in the second half of the Sixteenth century.

and to ‘continual borrowing and .. “stimulus diffusion”’ whereas the ‘despotism’ of the east functioned as ‘a revenue pump’ in the best of times, deteriorating into a chaotic ‘fluctuations without development’ in the eighteenth century.

Why? If brother couldn't trust brother and the King could not trust his general, life became more and more unpredictable. Economic development would get concentrated in foreign controlled enclaves. 

The case for a contrast between dependent and despotic kings

e.g. the last Mughal who was wholly dependent on the Brits and some of the allies of the Brits in 1857 who were as despotic as hell within their own domains 

is undermined by the post-1980 scholarship on Indian empires,

all of which is shit 

which projects a negotiation rather than hierarchical relationship between sovereigns and communities in this region.

One can negotiate with superiors and inferiors. It is foolish to think that evidence of negotiation is evidence of equality. It is not the case that if Trump agrees to pay an extra ten dollars for a golden shower he becomes equal in dignity to a Russian hooker.  

That criticism still leaves us with the question, how do we think about conquest and colonization in comparative terms?  

If your King lives in a foreign country and is a different race and religion from you, chances are you have been conquered. If you have been evicted from your ancestral land and now perform menial labour for people of a different race, chances are your country has been colonized.  

   Again eighteenth century India presents a problem for global history.

No. It is a clear case where superior technology and management skill and practices led to more and more of the sub-continent getting integrated, on increasingly unequal terms, into a global economic and geopolitical order. Britain's rise relative to France was memorialized by victories of British arms against French commanders. 

In Europe, the outcome of political competition was states that grew in size and capacity, as the kings tried to take control of the economic means of financing wars, eventually redefining the role of the state in relation to the society.

Holland rose without a King. Philipp II's Spain fell. A century later, the English glorious revolution confirmed that Finance would have the upper hand over Crowned heads.  

The European states in the eighteenth century had been moving towards sovereign control of the fiscal and the military apparatus, away from dependence on mercenaries, creditors, and contractors.

France under the Sun King may be said to have done so. But that didn't end well.  

The phrase, military-fiscalism, coined by Martin Wolfe in the context of Renaissance France, is frequently used to suggest a coevolution of fiscal capacity and military capacity.

But the thing ended in disaster long long ago. France realized it needed to become a bourgeois constitutional monarchy, or else, a Republic drawing support from the redoubtable French notary and the thrifty petit bourgeoisie.  

The attendant growth of ‘social power’ through a process of conflict brought about the nation state and the state structures that defined European modernization.

No. Modernization was a function of the Guttenberg revolution which was itself part and parcel of rising general purpose productivity based on geographical, occupational and social mobility. This was driven by 'Tardean mimetics'- imitating the more successful- rather than top down policies. True, this was not always apparent. In Germany, the doctrines of Adam Smith were promoted by a bureaucratic class which thought the Prince could sponsor 'catch-up growth' and thus create a 'special path' for their demesne. I suppose one could say that the 'total wars' of the Twentieth Century gave a greatly expanded role for the State in selecting and promoting a particular economic development path. But such was not the case in the eighteenth century. 

In India too the dominant trend in this time was increasing contest between regimes that had succeeded the Mughal Empire. The break-up of the empire, and the struggle for revenue among contenders, unleashed much potential for violence. Rulers, noblemen, commanders, and underneath them, dominant peasant clans more or less lived in a state of war especially in western and northern India.

Which also meant a lot of them would prefer to become clients of a powerful hegemon

- i.e. pay tribute in return for protection.  

All of them were desperately seeking money and the means to acquire more money to finance warfare. And yet, the outcome of that contest was not collective empowerment of the states after the pattern of Western Europe, but something quite the opposite, a collective disempowerment and collapse. In keeping up the military enterprise, almost all of these political actors ran into fiscal crisis and the states that they tried to erect even shrank in size.

In other words, a hegemonic power which reduced 'rent contestation' would gain economies of scope and scale in monopolizing legitimate powers of coercion. Anarchy in India laid the foundation for the Pax Britannica provided by the British Raj. But this was predicated on supremacy at sea. When that was lost or became too expensive, Britain's Empire in India ended.  

There was one large exception to this picture, and that was the English East India Company.

Which could easily replace the incompetent or the corrupt. The problem of a weak ruler inheriting the throne did not exist. The English did intrigue against each other but didn't kill each other. As time went on, they had more and more esprit de corps. Moreover, their finances were sound. The 'hoondi' of John Company maintained its value across the sub-continent. Pensions were punctually paid. Employment with the Company was secure- save in case of malfeasance or treachery.  

The contest ended with the hegemony of the Company. One way of approaching the subject, therefore, would be to try to explain the final outcome of the competition. How did a company of foreign merchants triumph over powerful and militaristic Indian kings?

By having sounder finances, superior soldiers and administrators and by raising productivity or finding new cash crops to grow and new markets to tap.  

Did military-fiscal strategies contribute to the rise of the Company?

No. Sensible policies enabled it to consolidate its gains.  

Did the European origin of the Company have any role to play in their military /fiscal enterprise?

Yes.  Europeans, on average, were more productive, innovative and had superior esprit de corps. 

The paper is an attempt to answer these three questions. Most answers to the first question now available can be grouped under two heads, and called the fall-of-the-Indians and the rise-of-the west stories.

Since the fall-of-the-Indians narrative was similar to the fall-of-the-other-non-European narratives, there is little need to focus on it. Moreover, since the West continued to rise (though China may now be a challenger), more can be said on that topic.  

The oldest view was articulated in nineteenth century imperialist history and carried over into Indian nationalistic narratives of colonization. The point of emphasis was the exceptional features of the Indian state.

The sub-continent has dynastic political and business leaders to a far greater extent than the West. Under the carapace of the modern nation state lies a 'segmentary society' where kinship ties and client-patron relationships retain importance. 

Autocratic regimes collapsed under the weight of their own contradictions.

Marxist garbage. Autocratic regimes collapse only when the autocrat is killed and his minions are rounded up and incarcerated.  In India, British power tended to increase precisely because autocratic rule by indigenous Princes increased uncertainty and reduced resistance to foreign influence. 

Roy's own 

 four connected theses on the colonization of India (are) 
First, there was only one model of successful military fiscalism in eighteenth century India, and it was represented by the East India Company.

But if the French and their allies had beaten the Brits at sea, John Company would have collapsed. Even if the Brits weren't defeated at sea but had to maintain a lot of troops in the Home Islands for fear of invasion or insurrection, John Company would have been confined to littoral enclaves under the protection of the local Prince. In other words, 'military fiscalism' didn't matter in the slightest.  

Second, the Company’s success in this respect cannot be understood as a transplantation of European practices into India.

Joint Stock Companies didn't exist in India. Nor did the Parliament to which John Company had to answer. The Company was a European 'transplant' though, no doubt, it adapted to local conditions. Similarly, the English District Collector was a transplant even if he had learned to speak in Hindi. He would return home after he retired.  

In the middle of the eighteenth century, the political game being played by the Company was quite similar to that being played by its principal rivals.

Clive tried to make his son the Nawab of Bengal. Cornwallis rebelled against Mad King George. He married several Muslim and Hindu wives. He appointed his sons by these women as Rajahs or Nawabs.  

Third, geography mattered.

The Brits were prepared to incur a loss holding revenue poor but strategically important regions and thus seal weak spots in India's 'natural frontiers'. 

Fourth, geography alone cannot explain the divergence; institutional choices mattered too.

Such choices are a matter of religion, upbringing, and incentive structures. The English could not adopt Chinese Imperial institutions because they did not have 2000 years of Mandarin literary culture. But the Chinese didn't turn into an American style Republic just by holding elections and calling their new leader 'President'. 

The Indian states, which could sustain the military enterprise only by offering fiscal concessions and tenures to commanders, saw their power wither away in the presence of sustained conflict.

In Europe, the younger brothers of the King were his most fervent supporters. The General was loyal because he knew he would never be accepted as the new ruler if he sought to usurp the throne. The Church and the Law Courts represented 'countervailing power'. The merchant class was related by blood and marriage to priests, lawyers, country gentry, Army and Navy officers as well as the senior Civil Servants responsible for the administration. True, conservative elements could impose a repressive 'Throne & Altar' regime. But, capital accumulated faster and technological innovation was more rapid where there was Religious toleration and greater freedom of expression. 

The Company on the other hand recast the relationship between the state and the intermediate order of agents engaged in taxation, by making use of an unprecedented instrument, offer of marketable property rights to the landlords in exchange for compliance to the new military/fiscal order.

It wasn't unprecedented. The British had themselves bought territory or acquired it by inheritance or marriage (e.g. Charles II got Bombay as part of his wife's dowry. He leased it to the Company for ten pounds a year.)

There was nothing unusual in paying a guy to take-over his claim to property. But possession is nine tenths of the law. Moreover, even if you get a court decision awarding it to you, you still have to pay bailiffs etc. to enforce your title. 

What the Company was doing was renouncing its own claim to revenue enhancement. This made the land titles it recognized valuable only in proportion to the Company's own power. If that collapsed, the title was worthless. Weak or stupid landlords would not be able to collect enough rent to pay the Company. They would be sold up. Ultimately the land would pass to those strong and smart enough to make a profit. As the years went by, they would see that it was in their interest for the Company to remain strong. Under a new dispensation, there would be a new settlement which might be very unfavourable to them. 

How do we understand this institutional difference?

We understand that it is a 'distinction without a difference'. Coase's theorem applies. How Property rights are assigned matter less and less if transaction costs fall and those rights become better defined (i.e. who owns what beneficial or control right is clear and unambiguous). But transaction costs only fall if uncertainty falls and there is more trust. But this also means there is greater clarity as to who owns what. If current arrangements have held for a long time and appear likely to hold for the foreseeable future, it doesn't matter if property is allodial or not. Scotland officially abolished feudalism in 2004. All land there is now allodial. This changed nothing but it showed the new Scottish Parliament was shaking off some imaginary feudal yoke imposed by Southron bastids. 

Under the rubric of 'post-colonial theory' some stupid shitheads liked saying 'Whitey invented Capitalism and Private Property and Heterosexuality. Colonialism spread these pernicious practices to India. To recover from Colonialism we must all sodomize each other in a Socialistic manner.'  

I submit that global (ideological) and local (geographical) factors need equal consideration, and in mutual relation. The Company did not originate in an indigenous community, and therefore had no military heritage to defend,

No. It had the British military heritage to defend. If a regiment suffered a reverse, it was anxious to take revenge.  

nor an interest in maintaining sectarian property rights.

The Church is the second biggest landowner in India after the Ministry of Defence. The Brits were Christians.  

The fact that it came from a world which had been adapting to constant wars by means of centralization of finances and conscriptions,

The UK didn't have conscription till 1916. Finance wasn't centralized till 1914 with the end of gold convertibility.  

made it readier than any Indian state of the time to try to consolidate sovereignty.

Nepal 'consolidated sovereignty'. No doubt, this was because of conscription and centralization of finance. It had nothing to do with Gurkhas being as brave as fuck.  

The Indian states had a path dependence to live with, namely, shared sovereignty with communities and individuals who supplied useful services, principally military services.

Whereas Nepal didn't.  

Conflicts, therefore, led them to give away more powers.

The Ranas in Nepal had plenty of power.  

The higher revenue per area

some areas. Strategic territory was held at a loss. This sometimes involved paying subsidies to local Chieftains.  

reduced the costs of territorial administration and policing potential rebels in the Company territories. In short, the coasts and flood-plains made military-fiscalism more promising than in the rocky landscape where Tipu Sultan designed his statist reforms.

Tipu Sultan was the son of a usurper. Could he forcibly convert lots of Hindus and become their Caliph? Nope. Hindus didn't like him. Professors of stupid shite have to pretend that he was a great hero.  

In the arid Deccan plateau and forested central India, devoid of good roads, much commerce, and large towns, it was considerably harder for the kings to shed their dependence on local bosses possessing adequate knowledge of the land and the means to coerce peasant headmen.

Lots of that territory ended up under the Nizam. Coercing peasants isn't difficult if you import troops from Yemen. Sadly, they were no match for the Indian Army in 1948.  

England's rivalry with France meant that investors in the UK were prepared to finance the expansion of the Company's domains even when it wasn't profitable in the short term. The aim was to push out France. After all, if France prevailed, British investors stood to lose everything, including their freedom. The Brits believed they could prevail and then, because they could raise money to pay Continental allies, they did prevail. They reaped a considerable reward through the rest of the Nineteenth century. 

The Company could not finance wars from its income. The proportion of interest-bearing-debt-to-revenue ratio rose from 120 per cent in 1793 to over 300 in 1809, declining to 200 per cent in 1833.33 90 per cent of the war finance was raised in India. Although the cost of credit was about half (5 per cent) in England of that in India, the share of the English money market did not rise until after the territorial wars were over. In other words, all major rival states in the late-eighteenth century competed for money in the same money market. Credit was also critical to the other states. Possibly a quarter of the aggregate Maratha revenues in 1763-5 came from loans. Rs. 10 million were taken from the bankers, according to one estimate for the 1760s.34 Where then was a difference between British territories and their Indian rivals? In Peshwa’s territory, debt service in the 1760s took away about a third of the net income of the state. There is reason to believe that Panipat left a permanent effect upon sovereign debt. In British India, in the decade of the third Anglo-Maratha wars, debt service as a percentage of revenue fell from nearer 20 per cent to 12 per cent.

Even Mahatma Gandhi was aware that his ancestors had financed British expansion. But he also said that the Princes they had served were greedy lechers. They would send troops to break down your door to abduct your pretty daughter and carry off any gold or silver you might have. Pax Britannica involved a slow but steady improvement in the behaviour of such Princes who now feared losing their throne if they devoted all their time to rape. 

 Between 1770 and 1793, landlord asset was made more marketable, and increased in value as collateral.

Why? The 'market makers' included Company 'banyans'- in other words, those who knew the Brits best were bullish on their continued rise. It is when 'insiders' engage in capital flight that you start getting margin calls.  

The Company was beginning to

establish its own Nizamat or administration. 

overhaul the legal infrastructure by instituting a set of courts and uniform procedural law. The claim to landed property became

fungible. That's what mattered. Previously, one could say title must remain within a specific family or members of a particular faith. There were places where such arguments had merit. The solution was to treat those territories as Principalities where right of succession was restricted while turning other land into fungible 'zamindaris'. However, Princes or Pontiffs too could rent out land on long leases.

verifiable in the courts of common law rather than the courts of Islamic law, courts of the royalty, or courts of the peasant communities as before.

Who will have confidence in an infidel respecting the decisions of an Islamic court? Subjects of King George are bound by the decisions of that King's Courts. They may defy those of a Mughal Emperor whom they had already defeated in battle.  

Further, the state made the state landlord relationship a contractual one,

a commercial one. Some contracts aren't commercial- e.g. a marriage contract.  

meaning that the failure to pay revenues led to resumption and sale of estate to the highest bidder.

No. It might lead to an action in law towards that end. But then again it might not.  The military or political situation might militate for leniency. 

The truth is nobody knew whether the 'Permanent Settlement' would be permanent. New policies were slow to be implemented. What may appear, from the perspective of the historian, to have been a once and for all change of a radical type was more evolutionary than revolutionary. Coase's theorem or incomplete contract theory is the correct lens through which to view what happened. It really isn't the case that Whitey suddenly imposed 'Enlightenment values' on Socialistic Sodomites. 

I conclude by returning to a global history question that this paper started with. Why did political competition empower states in early modern Europe,

It didn't. The Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth was a big power in early modern Europe. Spain remained quite a big player into the eighteenth century. Sweden was once very important but shrank in importance. Catholic Ireland looked as though it might rise at the time of James II. My point is that some states lost, others gained. But gains could be reversed. France began the nineteenth century as a threat to its neighbours. After 1870, it was clearly inferior to Germany which had been weak and divided for centuries. 

and disempower states in early modern India?

Those who went in for oceanic trade rose. Those who didn't tended to fall behind.  

Perhaps we need to understand the goals of competition and the means of competition differently in the Indian example.

Lineages which supported the Brits did well. There were plenty of very wealthy Maharajahs and Zamindars. 

Initially, the goal was judicious predation,

Piracy? The Brits outgrew this approach over the course of the Seventeenth century. Don't forget, there is no point looting a far away country if your treasure ships are captured by a rival power.  

and the means militarism rather than governance.

This was 'rent contestation' and related to the 'price of anarchy'. An Emperor can solve this problem. The British King could be a better Indian Emperor than any Indian Prince. Why?

1) Succession was by primogeniture- not brothers killing each other or generals usurping power. The exception was if the King changed religion or sought to rule without calling Parliament. 

2) Parliament alone could raise new taxes. It sought to ensure Government spending raised total factor productivity thus creating a virtuous circle whereby Income rose as fast, or faster, than tax payable. 

3) British naval hegemony.  This was the most important factor

These means were unsustainable when conflicts became long-term.

Or short-term and result in defeat. In the Second World War, France gave up rather than risk losing another 1.3 million men. 

The Company succeeded in adapting the means by wresting control of the fiscal order from former commanders and nobles, even as its Indian rivals persisted with the tradition of rewarding commanders and nobles with fiscal powers.

In other words, the Company did what Akbar did. Except it didn't really. Akbar was aiming at revenue maximization. The Brits were content to 'satisfice'. Why? The Brits were answerable to Parliament. By showing they had done enough to secure the territory but no so much as to rouse rebellious sentiment, they would be acquitted by both sides. After all, greedy people will never accept that you squeezed out as much money as was possible. Indeed, they will accuse you of pocketing some of that money. Conversely, the bleeding hearts will never accept that you did enough for the poor suffering natives. Thus, you say you took a middle course. Parliament is welcome to send some one more greedy or someone more compassionate. You were a good enough steward- nothing more. 

As the divergence in means continued to grow, the goal before the Company changed from predation to imperialism.

No. The Brits gave up piracy for trade. Long term, the latter is more profitable. As Britain industrialized, India became a big market for cheap textiles. In 1913 India absorbed almost half of the total cotton yardage exported from Britain. This wasn't because evil Viceroys had chopped off the thumbs of Indian weavers. It was because burning coal is much much cheaper than burning human calories in order to weave cloth. 

Japan followed the British example. It built ships and dug coal and smelted iron. It got rural girls into giant factory dormitories. Sadly, it also followed the German example. It was able to go on the Gold Standard after getting reparations from China in precisely the manner that Germany went on Gold after getting French reparations. But this encouraged a predatory Imperialism which led to Japan's defeat. Fortunately, thanks to the Korean War, the US was happy for it to rise and rise as a manufacturing power. 

Roy & Guha are from Bengal. It is likely both are descended from zamindars or jotedars (intermediaries) and thus have a special interest in the 'Permanent Settlement'. But the thing had no importance in the larger scheme of things. Indeed, Bengal didn't greatly matter- save to Bengalis who, after Independence, found they had to run away from increasing portions of it. 

permanent Settlement was a project to create a strong state,

No. It created a nightwatchman state- literally so, as evidenced by the 1870 Bengal chowkidar Act. Bengal wasn't strong. Its people were considered feeble. Still, the moment they began to grow restive, plans were made to move the Imperial Capital. But, already, there were questions as to whether India- like the settler colonies- should become self-administering and self-governing. The Imperial game was not worth the candle. Sadly internecine conflict in India delayed the transfer of power- or rather the emergence of a class of Indians who could act cohesively to solve collective action problems. In Bengal this type of conflict- to which the stupidity and solipsism of the intellectuals greatly contributed- intensified in the Sixties and Seventies. Consider the case of Nirupam Sen, a teacher, who later became Minister of Industries in the Left Front Government. He is the main accused in the Sainbari case. It is alleged that he killed two brothers belonging to the Congress Party, mixed their blood with rice and forced their mother to eat it. She went mad. 

To be fair, there were plenty of French philosophers who praised such examples of 'revolutionary justice'. As Amartya Sen might say, this was 'nyaya' not morality based 'niti' and thus greatly to be praised.

 Tirthankar Roy is by no means ideologically aligned with Amartya or Ranajit, but there are commonalities in their thinking deriving from their common origin as bhadralok buddhijivis- i.e. upper class Bengali savants. 

In particular, they don't understand that 'uncorrelated asymmetries' must pick out one and only agent, if they are to dictate eusocial bourgeois strategies.

concentrating authority to tax, govern, legislate, and fight wars

which are always concentrated in the state whether or not it is strong or weak.  Sadly, more than one state may claim authority. The 'uncorrelated asymmetry' here only arises if only one party exercises that authority- i.e. punishes those who refuse to obey. 

– constrained by a lack of data on precedence, practice, and taxable capacity.

This is not a constraint on authority. It is a constraint on what can be done with that authority.  

The choice of zamindars as owners acknowledged that the magnates and not the state had more local data.

Nonsense! The magnate might be a baby with no data whatsoever. Indeed, may estates did better when the owner was a minor and the State (i.e. the Court of Wards) took over the administration.  

But the added checks and the design of the deal tilted the balance for the state.

Only because it remained in power and if it was profitable for it to get involved in the matter.  

In the short run, the project delivered more revenue, demilitarized landlords,

militarization is a cost. It will only be incurred if there is a military threat.  

and broke up estates.

The rise of 'market makers'- including people who worked for the British who had access to native capital- meant that fragmentation was averted. It is likely that bigger jotedars gained lower assessments in return for supporting higher assessments on the small fry. Thus the income distribution was dictated by 'Shapley values'- i.e. the more powerful gained more.  

It also possibly led to underinvestment in the long run. But that is another story.

It is the same story. Capital sought to turn itself into rent rather than embody itself as a factor of production. Intellectuals too preferred to score off each other's interpretation of the same old texts rather than try to add to the body of alethic knowledge.  



Monday, 28 October 2024

Tamoghna Halder vs Tirthankar Roy


Capitalism is about getting poor people to work for a wage lower than their marginal product thus generating a profit. You can't make a profit if your workforce starves to death. Indeed, famine drives up real wages and reduces rents (which Capitalists also have in their portfolios). 

Settler Colonialism may be about ethnic cleansing indigenous people in which case it is fine with famine and epidemics. Indeed, it may actively destroy food sources for the natives. But India didn't have settler colonialism. Neither the East India Company not the Raj which succeeded it had any financial incentive to permit famine. On the contrary, they were under pressure from the folk back home to do famine relief even if this meant introducing an income tax which the Indians didn't want at all. 

Tamoghna Halder, whose PhD is from California, takes a different view. Attacking Tirthankar Roy, it writes-

What are the causes of famines? Contesting Theories

Roy’s central argument is that the scholarship linking British colonialism to the Indian famines, is outdated and discarded by the most important research in Economic History.

To call it 'scholarship' is to gild the lily. There was polemics on the one hand and some Government reports on the other. That is all.  

Roy offers five arguments to support this claim and I will investigate all of them, but first, one should note that in academia, particularly in Economics, it is rare for ideas to be ‘universally discarded’.

Which is why the academy is where you park credentialized cretins.  

Broadly speaking, on the origin and explanation of famines – there exists several views.

The Malthusian view would suggest famines are inevitable (and in implication, necessary) checks that would naturally emerge and balance the unrestricted growth of population, and in the process, mitigate the shortage of food.

Only if the population is too stupid to raise productivity and mobility. Still, we can imagine a lazy King or 'Stationary Bandit' being too stupid or callous to prevent a fall in his own revenue. Equally, as in the Irish potato famine, it may be in the interest of the more vocal or influential class to increase their landholdings while getting rid of people who may be related to them by blood but whose manner of life has not changed for the better. The Finnish famine, a little later, was about asserting autonomy and thus had a political aspect.  

The Entitlement approach, furthered by Amartya Sen, would view famines originating out of failures to map endowments to entitlements, and shortage of food may neither be a necessary nor sufficient explanation for famines.

If Sen were correct, millions of Bengalis starved in '43 and '74 because they were too stupid to understand that they could get fed in a jail cell if they simply pissed on a passing policeman.  

Although Sen’s entitlement approach could possibly be attributed to left-leaning economic thoughts,

it was attributable to Sen's stupidity. Also, after his Daddy died and he ran away from India with his best friend's wife, he didn't have to worry about being called a fucking imbecile by guys who knew what had happened in '43 and '74.  

the Marxist approach to famine is more specific and differs from Sen’s.

Marxists are good at causing famines. That's true enough.  

For example, the entitlement approach does not explain why the Irish masses, in the years leading up to the great famine, became heavily reliant on potatoes (a reduction in their subsistence endowment set),

The fact is the propertied class in Ireland, both Catholic and 'Ascendancy' decided there would be no fucking 'entitlement' to relief for anyone owning even one tenth of an acre. A lot of land changed hands during that period. Also, the 'masses' got the hint and fucked off to America where they soon started to do very well for themselves.  

while the Marxist view does. Typically, Marxist historians use a distinct set of analytical tools to examine agrarian and ecological conditions leading up to a famine.

Do they use those 'tools' to examine Stalin and Mao's famines? No. They tell stupid lies about them. 

In the Irish example, they would argue that a combination of increased extraction of surplus from each worker,

those who starved weren't working for anybody. They were eating the potatoes they grew on their own soil.  

and an increase in the number of tenants (through subdivision of land)

This was because in the early eighteenth century, Catholics had been obliged by law to carve up their estates. It was a purely political measure.  

resulted in limited amounts of land allotted for subsistence production, and in turn, left the Irish population heavily reliant on just one crop.

There was a similar problem in parts of Scotland but the wealthy were keen to offer relief and assisted passages to Canada etc.  


Further, Cormac O Grada’s work “Famine: A Short History”, engages with different frameworks but refrains from offering a one size fits all argument. He manages to shed light on the different roles that market, natural calamities, wartime rationing and distribution policies may have played in causing and/or worsening most of the famines across the world and over centuries.

He can't come out and say that both the Catholic Church (which wasn't that much loved by Gaelic speaking subsistence farmers) and the Catholic middle-class wanted these 'unproductive' people gone so that they could get the Eire of their dreams.  

It exposes both the relevance and restricted nature of the different contending theories of famine,

Famine is caused by food availability deficit brought on by blight, floods, volcanic activity etc. The solution as B.R Sen persuaded the world, is to bring in lots of food and make sure it gets to hungry people. After that, like Bangladesh, you can invest in agriculture so that output quadruples.  

and in my opinion, is perhaps one of the ‘most important research’ on famine out there. While some scholars may fail to acknowledge the enormous potential as well as limitations in all these different takes, for the rest of the world, these debates are far from being settled.

They were settled long ago for sensible people. When Herbert Hoover saw a famine he got a lot of food and took it to the hungry people. That's why he was elected President.  


Fact Checking of Roy’s Argument One:

Let’s cut to the chase. Roy’s first argument is that we don’t really know the frequency and severity of famines before the colonial era, and hence, can’t really compare them with the famines in colonial India.

We know there were horrible famines in India and China. We also know that saying 'Brits caused famines' is like saying 'Viceroy Sahib drained trillions of starving Indians of their jizz by sucking them off while they were sleeping.'  

Not really. There exists enormous amounts of documentation on the frequency and severity of famines, for both colonial and pre colonial India. It’s fine if Roy does not want to believe in any of these accounts from pre colonial India, but his beliefs may be rooted in profound ignorance. First, he writes that nationalists such as B M Bhatia claimed that in pre colonial India, severe famines occurred only once in 50 years. False. B M Bhatia never claimed that.

Yes he did though admittedly he was just repeating something some White dude had written. His thesis was that incidence of famine increased because of increased monetization under the British. But this just cashes out as saying that there was higher mortality where expectations were not rational. But we can explain any type of untimely death in that way. Why did my friend, Drunkard P Drunkard die at the young age of 18? The answer is that he did not expect to die when he got drunk and got behind the wheel of his daddy's car. 

He cited these statistics from Alexander Loveday’s work (The History and Economics of Indian Famines, 1914), in which Loveday, a young British scholar at Cambridge himself made that claim, based on a list of famines that he compiled (297 – 1907). Not just Bhatia, but several economic historians, including Cormac O Grada have cited this statistic from Loveday’s work as it is the first academic work to (a) carefully compile a list of famines, after some degree of scrutiny of the sources, and (b) to discuss the economic conditions around these famines.

Stupid academics writing about shite that nobody gives a toss about are welcome to eat each other's shit.  


Second, Roy believes that frequency of famines in pre colonial India depended on the frequency of hagiographies.

i.e. the biographies of Saints though Roy extends the term to sycophantic royal biographies. 

This is an example of how ignorance often leads to false perceptions. Not all the entries in Loveday’s list (which Roy must read or revisit) are based on hagiographies, as hagiographies could not have been written every 5 years – the average frequency of famines in India during 917 – 1907 (according to Loveday).

The problem here is that we know that sometime soon after the agricultural revolution, buffer stocks were maintained. Furthermore there was enough spare land for foraging to supplement cereal production. Finally, in good years inferior grains were fed to animals who were slaughtered and eaten in bad years.  

Another resource would be Paul Greenough’s list of Indian famines between 298 BC and 1943-44 which identifies “four famines before 1000 AD, twenty-four between 1000 and 1499 AD, eighteen in the sixteenth century, twenty-seven in the seventeenth, eighteen in the eighteenth, and thirty in the nineteenth.” One can keep adding, but let me end with this one, which again does not rely solely on hagiographies. This list refers (and links) to multiple reports among other historical records, documents 75+ famines between 1500 to 1750.

So what? People don't care what happened long ago. If some guy says 'Churchill starved my ancestors to death', you can reply 'Churchill also sucked them off so as to deprive them of their precious jizz'. If they deny this, accuse them of homophobia. The fact is, we may be ready to claim that Jews or Whites or high caste people robbed and oppressed our ancestors. However, we fight shy of admitting that they were subject to fellatio and cunnilingus by evil Viceroys or Chief Rabbis or whatever.  

Hopefully these resources would enable Roy to write his next article with more evidence, and claim what he is dying to claim – “famines were as frequent and deadly, if not more in pre colonial India”.

It is enough to say they were more frequent and deadly in China. Mao's famine was the biggest ever. Since it was 'man-made' stupid Bengalis needed to claim that the Brits engineered famines. 

Once he does that, I will consider another response but given his citations are all over the place, I am afraid he might end up citing me for making the claim above. I am not even claiming all these resources (and corresponding sources) would check out on face value. I am only doing a fact checking exercise at this point, and my humble submission is just that Roy’s first argument is factually flawed.

We have to admit that the Raj had better statistics than previous administrations. I suppose once we have a full DNA map of India, we may be able to narrow down 'bottle neck' events which correlate with climate change, volcanic eruptions etc, and speculate about previous population size and likely mortality rates. But there is no pressing urgency to do this.

A noteworthy observation is that almost all the pre colonial famines, going by the historical records, hagiographies and reports, were caused and exacerbated by a mix of factors: natural calamities, wars, and poor policy responses.

Bad governance can indeed cause depopulation even in very fertile regions. People run away to deserts and mountains and thickly forested regions.  

And for that matter, famines could have occurred even as a result of certain economic policies. Maybe Roy would be relieved to know that the British were not the first to induce famines through bad policymaking. For example, some historians argue that the 1291 famine under Alauddin Khilji’s regime, resulted from a set of market policies that fixed the prices of grain. There is no data that can substantiate such a claim, and yet it is a largely accepted one!

No it isn't. Nobody gives a shit.  

The point is, studying historical records does not necessarily require analyzing statistical tables, and particularly in the absence of data, depending on historical narratives, accounts, and hagiographies is a widely accepted method. Those who seriously engage with such historical accounts, are almost always careful in making inferences, admissibly due to biases in the narratives, just like a mindful cliometrician would do. In fact, colonial census records are not free from administrative biases and inconsistencies – does that mean Roy should stop using them?

Nobody cares. This isn't a high IQ field because the thing is useless. Famines, like other sources of excess mortality, can be the result of irrational expectations or constraints on mobility. 


Fact Checking of Roy’s Argument Two:

In academia, careless and casual lying is known as misrepresentation and willful omission

not in Indian academia where it is known as being a Bengali buddhiji showing commitment to the shtruggle of the masshes.  

of facts originating from lack of rigorous scrutiny of resources at disposal. Roy’s second argument, “Why did the south have three famines during 1877 to 1899 but not the north?” is a classic example of that. First, the north did witness famines during this time.

I suppose, as a Bengali, Roy was thinking of Bengal.  

The famine of 1896-97, which Roy mentions as one of the three major famines to have hit the Deccan, actually started in Bundelkhand and eventually impacted Bihar, United Provinces Central and Western provinces in addition to the Deccan! Second, even the famine of 1877, which was devastating for the Deccan, directly impacted certain parts of north and central India. In fact, all the famines that occurred during the second half of the 19th century, taken together, resulted in excess mortality in almost all the provinces.

All were associated, as Roy says, with the failure of the monsoons. The irrigated portions of the North, which had snow fed rivers, were spared.  

Third, while it is true that all the major famines during this time came right after severe shortfall of monsoon rains (and subsequent drought), the path from drought to famine to excess mortality passed through several junctions, including that of colonial policies.

Not to mention the previous Indian policy of being so utterly shit that a handful of Britishers took over the country.  

Even when the severity of drought remained more or less similar across districts for a given famine, there was great heterogeneity at the level of districts in terms of implementation of relief policies, grain exports, attitude of local administration, railway access – to name a few among a multitude of factors that caused a greater heterogeneity of impact (excess mortality, migration etc.) across these districts.

Which is what we'd expect. We know that if there is a sudden food shortage in our country- caused by a dockworker's strike or something of that sort- some areas will do better than others because of greater State capacity or private provision. 

Each of the colonial famines, therefore, deserves a discussion of their own,

only if you have nothing better to do- i.e. are too fucking stupid to study or teach something worthwhile.  

along with a scrutiny of policies before, during and after, but for the sake of time, let’s look at the broad picture.

Broader picture was of Viceroy shamelessly sucking off trillions of darkies.  

Understanding the famines under colonial rule:

is like understanding those that went before or which (but for American food aid) would have come after it. 


One can broadly divide the timeline between the Battle of Plassey till India’s independence in three parts: 1757 – 1858 (takeover and expansion of EIC rule, and multiple severe famines), 1858 – 1900 (British Raj with multiple severe famines) and 1900 – 1947 (British Raj with almost no severe famines, except in 1943).

Which occurred because elected Indians had power over food and land in Bengal from 1937 onward.  

In the first part, which witnessed the Great Bengal Famine of 1770 (among several others),

this was 3 years before it took over the administration (Nizamat) 

the EIC initially left the matter of disaster management to the goodwill of private individuals, while simultaneously ensuring increased amounts of land tax collection during and after the famine.

Because it had the 'Diwani' in 1765 for which it paid some money to the Emperor.  

In the case of the subsequent famines, the EIC attempted to act, but with no real intentions of preventing loss of life. As Alexander Loveday remarked, “If the mortality of 1783 was less, it was mainly due to the lesser intensity of the famine; and though the expenditure was greater in 1832 and 1837, its benefits were counterbalanced by an almost equal incompetency”.

Foreign merchants and soldiers aren't good at managing things in a far away country. What a shocker! The question is why were Indians so crap that a bunch of foreigners could take over the country? If you can't defend your country, why feed its people? Take your money and run away some place which is safe and has food. 

The second half of the 19th century saw some change in the attitude of the British as the crown took over, but several of the administrators were still high on Malthus.

You don't have to read some dead economist to justify doing as little as possible in return for your wages.  

Enough has been written on Richard Temple’s erratic switch from a relatively generous mode of relief (Bihar famine, 1874) to a strictly conservative one in 1877 (The Deccan famine). His policy of providing only a pound of grain a day, known as ‘Temple Ration’, compounded the severity of the deccan famine.

An ambitious civil servant wants to pander to his boss. What a shocker!  

On top of it, the British saw the process of famine relief as a window to exploit labor – the already struggling masses had to earn the relief by working in large scale construction (roads, among other public projects) in both rural and urban areas.

Why are poor people expected to work for the money they need to feed themselves? Also, how come billionaires- like Elon Musk- don't come and wipe my bum for me?  

In exchange they were paid at best subsistence wages, also known as the famine wages.

Whereas in independent India, 'food for work' schemes provided champagne and caviar. 

This measure of ‘anyone able to work should earn their relief’ continued even in the case of the famines during 1896-97 and 1899-1900,

Even in the UK, those who can work are expected to look for work in order to receive unemployment benefit.  

and excess mortality too, remained a reality, but these famines also saw a relatively greater expenditure on relief as well as somewhat uniform implementation of ‘The Famine Codes’ (drafted during the 1880s) at the district level, albeit not at a province level.

So, British rule got better as its people got to know more about India.  

In the third period (1900 – 1947), there was no severe famine other than the 1943 Bengal Famine, which possibly makes Roy so satisfied that he goes on to claim that colonialism did not cause the famines, rather it mitigated those.

In Bengal, the transition to elected Premiers caused two big famines- one in '43, the other in '74. The first may be called a war-time famine. The second was the product of Mujib's stupid Socialism. What is notable is that Indians did not care about famines or great epidemics. They were Malthusian in their thinking.  

He attributes this success to the rapid expansion of railways during the late 19th century and afterwards, which integrated the domestic markets faster than ever, and he is correct – but only partially. Railways were not the sole channel through which famines were mitigated. As several scholars including Cormac O Grada notes, there was a gradual shift in attitude of the policymakers and administrators, away from ‘hard line Malthusianism’.

The English had their last famine in 1623. They saw that it was more profitable to keep poor people alive and doing something useful in the Work-House or as recipients of 'outdoor relief'. But this was locally financed. Indians could have approached their District Magistrate and offered to raise funds to feed the starving. Indeed, something like this did happen in certain places.  

There is ample text based evidence, in reports after reports that the British administrators wrote (including the policy responses), where voices such as Richard Temple’s gradually faded away, and that of principled Smithians who also wanted to save some lives, rose to prominence.

What had changed was Missionaries and Philanthropists- many of whom were American- raising funds and organizing shipments to starving people wherever they might be found.  

They did not compromise on the principles of the free market and open trade policies, but certainly moved away from the argument of Malthusian checks and balances.

The Brits knew very well that irrigation was the key to overcoming rainfall based food availability deficit. The Punjabis in the canal colonies were prepared to pay for this amenity. Other parts of the country were less enthused.  

And let’s talk about this railway business for a second. The railways were not set up as a policy response to mitigate famines.

So what? The internet wasn't invented for watching porn- but that is what it is mainly used for.  

The impact of railways in mitigating or preventing famines in the late 19th and early 20th century, is simply a by-product, not the objective of the railways’ existence.

Just as this nutter being a Professor is a by-product, not the objective, of his being as stupid as shit.  

The policy failures that multiple scholars

i.e useless tossers teaching nonsense to retards 

blame for the famines, were either direct measures pursued in response to famines, or measures related to land, infrastructure and trade policies in the years leading to (as well as during) the famines.

What saved India from big famines in the Sixties? American food aid. In 1966, India produced about 70 million tons of food grain. America had to supply 10 million tons. Without it, 30 million may have died. This still does not beat what Mao had achieved for his country but it comes close.  

The role of the former receives more prominence in academia but even the latter, mostly furthered by the scholarship from left historians, raises several questions regarding the British policies and their impact on Indian agriculture and ecology.

The question is why things got worse when Indians took over. The answer is that those Indians tended to be Leftists.  

Core argument is that certain areas were left so vulnerable that any weather shock could easily translate to famine (or famine-like) conditions.

because the wealthier Indians had no interest in maintaining buffer stocks or reservoirs for water. But then, if Indians hadn't been shitty they would not have been ruled by foreigners. True those foreigners fucked off when the place no longer yielded a profit but begging for food from other foreigners means you are dependent not independent.  

Areas that depended on floods for farming, were left vulnerable to floods

a good thing if they 'depended on floods for farming'. 

by mindless infrastructure projects.

The Brits didn't waste money on 'mindless' projects. The Indians did.  

Cultivable lands were left uncultivable in several parts of the doab.

by the British Earls and Dukes who comprise so much of the population of the Gangetic plane.  

In some places they pursued irrigation projects and messed up the water distribution, while not pursuing such projects in areas that needed it.

Nope. Their irrigation projects were successful enough.  

One should be mindful that none of these are uncontested claims, but the objections to these are not full proof either – leaving certain questions open and worthy to investigate.

By cretins. 


Roy’s third argument: lies and damned lies, without statistics

In his third point, Roy criticizes Sullivan and Hickel for relying on Allen’s work on living standards on the grounds that the “India dataset on wages … is of doubtful value.” and of course, he does not cite any supporting evidence.

It is self-evident. If we don't have a good dataset today, how likely is it that good datasets were available way back then.  

Perhaps, careful citation is a task left only for the leftist scholars.

If by 'careful citation' you mean eating your own shit- sure.  

Roy goes on to claim that Sullivan and Hickel should not have cited this data, for two reasons – (a) “almost all the data that Allen and others use come from the indo-gangetic plains, which did not see famine in the nineteenth century”

There was quite a big famine in the Doab in 1861. 

and (b) “there is nothing comparable—in fact, nothing at all—for the regions where the Deccan famines broke out.” Let’s count how many things Roy threw out of the window in these two sentences.

One, in saying that the indo-gangetic plains did not see any famine in nineteenth century, he disregarded the death of millions of people that died from the Upper Doab Famine (1860-62), casualties from the Bihar famine, and several hundred thousand more from direct and indirect impact of the 1896-97 famine – which, as mentioned earlier, started in Bundelkhand and impacted large parts of United Provinces, Bihar (in addition to other places that don’t belong to the indo gangetic plains). How on earth does he keep repeating the lie that 19th century northern India (and the indo gangetic plains) did not witness any famine?

He is Bengali. It is second nature for Bengalis to repeat stupid lies. I suppose Roy was hoping some fellow Bengali nutter would totally lose his shit over this claim 

I am now tired of this business of counting, but, two, he completely disregarded the work of both Parthasarathy as well as Broadberry & Gupta, who would disagree with each other on certain accounts, but both provide long term series of wages in southern India.

They think India's per capita GDP fell from about 60% of Britain's in 1600 to less than 15% by 1871. In other words, 'the great divergence' predates colonialism. However, it was only after Independence that Britain became a magnet for Indian immigrants. 

Broadberry and Gupta, in fact, estimates northern and southern Indian wages to be at similar levels, both in terms of grain wages as well as silver wages, and show that the southern Indian wage data is suitable even for international comparisons. If Roy does not find that exercise a useful one, he should have offered a counter argument, but instead he chose to dismiss these previous works altogether by misrepresenting and wilfully omitting….

But such work would strengthen the case against blaming Colonialism for everything. The fact is, there was a time when European artisans- e.g. the guys who made Bata shoes- found it worthwhile to relocate to India. Productivity matters. It went up for some Indians- e.g. Parsi carpenters turned ship-builders- while other Indians preferred to remain idle.  


Roy’s fourth argument: (mis)using Ravallion

Several scholars have argued how exports compounded the severity of famines in colonial times.

Sadly, imports of food- more particularly free food- can compound the underlying problem even more. However, there can be no doubt that the evil British, or Capitalist, practice of discouraging people from eating their own shit is the major cause of hunger in the world.  

One is free to agree or disagree based on evidence. What Roy does in his fourth argument, however, may cause Martin Ravallion to roll his eyes from the grave.

to turn over in his grave.  

In a haste to defend colonial trade policies in the face of famines, Roy spins the story from Ravallion (1987) and claims that Ravallion showed how “food exports did not expose the countryside to a food shortage” and that “trade stabilized domestic consumption rather than reducing it”.

That's how trade works. If people can grow food for the export market they produce much more. This means more food is available domestically if there is a sudden supply shock.  In any case, it is part of High School Economics to show that if buffer stocks are used to equalize farm income over a period, then there is less price volatility and unwanted 'cobweb' effects. 

Ravallion’s original claim is way more nuanced. Yes, he does remark: “Adam Smith’s influential followers in India appear to have been right in their assessment of the main qualitative effects of trade during famines.” But observing the small change in short run, he also comments, “external trade was a less-than-perfect consumption stabilizer and export sluggishness and output lags considerably diminished its short run performance”,

Because of poor infrastructure and internal barriers to trade and arbitrage.  

and concludes, despite his theoretical support of the Smithian principles, “… trade’s quantitative effect in insulating domestic rice consumption from output uncertainty does not support an optimistic assessment of the potential for short-run stabilization by these means.

Not at that time but, this happened later as non-monsoon based rice became available on global markets and as cost of delivery fell. Still, there may be considerable volatility in premium varieties. The good news is that cereals are 'inferior' and so if productivity, and therefore income, rises then food price volatility has less and less impact. 

And the extent of famine relief by trade is likely to have depended heavily on its short-run effects.”

Because people starve in the short run. It doesn't take them fifty years to die because they are getting nothing to eat.  

The other works that Roy cites, do not really establish any direct causal channel between trade openness and mitigation of weather shocks.

None is necessary if you know anything at all about where the food you buy comes from. If long grain Basmati becomes too expensive, families may substitute some other variety or switch to eating wheat.  

Lack of causality is not necessarily a demerit, but that does not settle the discussions either.

The only way to keep the discussion open is by confining it to useless tossers teaching nonsense to retards. 


Roy’s fifth argument, or an incoherent rant

Roy’s fifth argument is a rant against Mike Davis. Rants are often fun, engaging and even enriching to read,

says this ranter who isn't fun at all 

but this one is sheerly incoherent and incomprehensible. Yes, weather shocks happened throughout the period of 1900-1947, and those did not translate to famine – and yes, part of it is attributed to the railways but parts of it, as explained earlier in this response, is also because of a sharp change in the attitude of the policymakers.

England was less and less reliant on profits or rents from India. You also had Irish MPs and Christian missionaries and other do-goodniks like Florence Nightingale kicking up a stink about the horrible conditions in India.  

His remark that there is no evidence that colonial apathy ended in the 1900s,

it had ended some time previously for political reasons internal to Britain.  

is a denial of the series of reports that document these changes, and I have discussed this at least twice in this response already!

But there had been reports prior to that. I imagine that a lot of people read A.O Hume's book on agriculture which came out at the end of the eighteen seventies.  

And there goes his five arguments, written with utmost disrespect and disregard for almost all previous work on the topic, generously sprinkled with ignorance and half baked truths.

But Roy is right and this nutter is wrong.  

I am no particular fan of either the left or right-leaning scholarship on Indian famines,

they are shit produced by useless shitheads.  

and personally for me, much remains desired from the left,

give them a break. It is no small achievement on the part of Stalin and Mao to have manufactured more famine deaths than anyone in human history.  

as several of their existing claims have long been contested, but the ground of contestation has to be valid, and rooted in facts – neither distortions, nor intentional omissions are going to help Roy’s academic credentials. However, Sir Tirthankar Roy may indeed succeed in reaping whatever fruits he is expecting out of his mission of defending colonialism.

Whereas this nutter has to teach at Aziz Premji university. Sad.