Thursday, 3 August 2023

The Silliness of Social Contract theories

One can use many different metaphors to speak of any given Society. It could be seen as one big happy family or as an army fighting for a sacred cause or as a bunch of businessmen bound together by contractual relationships. However, if we take a metaphor for concrete reality and proceed to build another metaphor on that metaphor which we take to itself be concrete, then we are likely to end up talking nonsense. A metaphor is merely a manner of speaking which may be useful enough for some specific purpose. A meta-metaphor is an attempt to displace reality so every utterance loses all meaning.

Consider the following entry from the Stanford Encyclopaedia of Philosophy- 


The Role of the Social Contract
1.1 Distinctiveness of the Social Contract Approach

The aim of a social contract theory is to show that members of some society have reason to endorse and comply with the fundamental social rules, laws, institutions, and/or principles of that society.

Members of a Society may have a reason to run the fuck away from it. The reason they have to comply with its rules, is because the fear the consequences of defiance. But there is no compulsion on anyone to endorse anything- save hypocritically or in pro forma manner. 

It is a different matter to say there might be some Society whose members would have reason to endorse its fundamental rules. Thus I might willingly endorse the rules of the Society of Angels in Heaven coz they don't die, get old, or suffer from excessive flatulence. The trouble is, I have no way to join that Society without actually dying- which is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. 

Meanwhile, I may comply with some rules of the Society I live in but I'd be a fool to endorse those rules. After all, I can always imagine a better version of even those rules I like- viz. the version where I am paid lots of money for complying with them. 

There is another problem- one to do with the intensional fallacy- in the quotation given above. This has to do with the notion of 'fundamental' rules. We don't know which rules are fundamental. The thing is 'epistemic'. As our knowledge and experience increases, the extension of 'fundamental' changes. There is a 'masked man' fallacy here. 

Put simply, it is concerned with public justification, i.e., “of determining whether or not a given regime is legitimate and therefore worthy of loyalty” (D’Agostino 1996, 23).

Why do 'Public Justification'- i.e. Propaganda- unless you get paid for it? As for 'loyalty'- why mention it unless there is an actual Dictator and a Secret Police who might kick down your door in the wee hours of the morning. 

The fact is, any 'Social Contract' is either necessarily 'incomplete' because of Knightian Uncertainty or else is a contract of adhesion simply.  This does not mean 'Entry, Exit & Voice' play no role whatsoever. But it does mean that to speak of legitimacy or  allegiance is foolish. You buy and sell in the market place. You don't pretend it is a fucking Church or the Court of King sodding Arthur . This means there is bound to be 'fundamental' changes in control rights and Hohfeldian incidents over the course of the contract.  

The ultimate goal of state-focused social contract theories is to show that some political system can meet the challenge Alexander Hamilton raised in Federalist no. 1 of whether “men are really capable or not of establishing good government from reflection and choice, or whether they are forever destined to depend for their political constitutions on accident and force” 

This is foolish. We know men can establish a government on the basis of reflection and choice but we can't know, before the fact, if that government is good relative to the fitness landscape or rival regimes which seek its overthrow. 

Going further, David Gauthier argues that any system of moral constraints must be justified to those to whom it is meant to apply.

Not if violating those constraints will get your head kicked in or cause you material loss of a kind it is rational to avoid. In any case, there is an obvious infinite regress here. Once you start justifying stuff- unless, that is what you are paid to do- you find you have to justify justification and justify justifying justification and so forth.  

“What theory of morals,” Gauthier asks, “can ever serve any useful purpose unless it can show that all the duties it recommends are truly endorsed in each individual’s reason?” (1986, 1).

Theories of morality may be a by-product of a useful activity. There is 'Granger causality' or correlation with something useful. But, Tardean mimetics- i.e. imitation of the superior or more successful- doesn't pick and chose between what is causal and what is merely correlated. Indeed, it may be impossible to distinguish between the two. Thus, you may try to wear the same type of clothes as the person you are trying to imitate though you understand that the quality of theirs you seek to appropriate is not causally related to choice of apparel. 

Furthermore, endorsement is too demanding a criteria. It is enough if individuals have some incentive to comply if only on a temporary or ad hoc basis.  


The ultimate goal, then, of social contract theories is to show, in the most general sense, that social (moral, political, legal, etc.) rules can be rationally justified.

Anything at all can be rationally justified. It is a different matter that for certain justiciable or political or economic questions, there may exist a protocol bound, 'buck stopped', procedure of approval or rejection involving 'rational justification' for behaviour other than such as for which a Hohfeldian immunity exists. But that has nothing to do with 'Social Choice theory'.  

This alone does not, however, distinguish the social contract from other approaches in moral and political philosophy, all of which attempt to show that moral and political rules are rationally justifiable in some sense.

i.e. nonsense of some stripe or the other.  

The true distinctiveness of the social contract approach is that justification does not rely, for its foundation, on some exogenous reason or truth.

Unlike matters which are protocol bound, buck stopped, and therefore justiciable or which come under the purview of a political, administrative, or professional tribunal or other decision making body.  

Justification is generated endogenously by rational agreement (or lack of rejection in T. M. Scanlon’s version).

No it isn't. Otherwise it would also be endogenously generated over every proper subset of Society- e.g. two people having sex in a public toilet would endogenously be generating rational agreement or lack of rejection in the porn version of TM Scanlon's oeuvre. 

That is, the fact that everyone in a society, given their individual reasoning, would agree to a certain rule or principle is the critical justification for that rule or principle.

No. It is  a reason not to articulate that rule or principle. Everybody in my society agrees that cats are not dogs. This is a critical justification for omitting the statement 'we hold this truth self-evident that bow-wows don't say miaow' from the Preamble to our Constitution.  

Although contract theorists differ in their account of the reasons of individuals,

they are all stupid and useless 

with some being attracted to more objectivist accounts (Scanlon 2013), most follow Hobbes in modeling individual reasons as subjective, motivationally internal, or at least agent-relative.

In which case, like Hobbes, they must reject the notion that this shite is 'endogenous' rather than stuff for which a small market may exist for wholly contingent and deeply boring reasons.  

1.2 The Social Contract as a Model

The social contract is a model of rational justification

Not necessarily. The thing may be imputed. Furthermore, if 'uncorrelated asymmetries' obtain, there are arbitrary, not rational, factors which would therefore be outside the scope of such a model.  

that transforms the problem of justification (what reasons individuals have) into a problem of deliberation (what rules they will agree to).

None. The first thing you learn, as a Law student, is that there is no contract without the passing of consideration. Why agree to a thing for free when you can hold out for compensation of some kind?  

As Rawls argues:
[T]he question of justification is settled by working out a problem of deliberation: we have to ascertain which principles it would be rational to adopt given the contractual situation.

Yet, deliberation is neither a necessary nor a sufficient condition for the creation of a contract or its imputation for some specific purpose. Deliberation may be a wholly social- non-economic- activity. The rules governing it may be of the form 'pass the port to your left' or 'don't masturbate while speaking'.  

This connects the theory of justice with the theory of rational choice (Rawls 1999, 16).

It is not rational to choose to accept a fool's theory of justice. Rawls didn't get that under Knightian Uncertainty

1) There will be risk pooling and a market for insurance. 

2) Rewards would be distributed according to 'Shapley Values' in a repeated game. 

Justification is not a “mere proof” (Rawls 1999a 508), nor is it reasoning from given or generally accepted premises to conclusions about political legitimacy or morality (Rawls 1980, p. 518). Rather, the contractual model makes explicit the reasoning that connects our standpoint as persons with determinate interests and goals to our standpoint as citizens.

No it doesn't. Poetry might do so because it is concerned with 'reasons of the heart'. The language of solicitors has no such capacity.   

At the simplest level, models take something complex and make it simpler. Along these lines, both the economist Ariel Rubinstein (2012) and the philosopher Nancy Cartwright (1991) compare models to fables. Fables are stories that communicate some important lesson in a simple, easy-to-understand fashion. Fables, like models, communicate important general rules through particular, though fictional, cases.

A Structural Causal Model doesn't just make predictions or provide admonishment. It allows us to tinker with certain parameters so as to positively impact outcomes. Fables have no such power.  

Models involve abstraction and idealization,

They may do. What matters is if they yield a quantifiable Structural Causal Model so that we can alter outcomes.  

but they do more than that: they help us see what our key assumptions are,

No they don't. If they had any such power, Arrow, Rawls, Sen &c wouldn't have written so much nonsense.  

identify the factors that we see as relevant (Gaus 2016, xv-xvii). Models, as techniques of idealization, do more than abstract (Weisberg 2007a, 2013). Consider the periodic table of the elements. It is an abstraction, but not a model according to Michael Weisberg.

It can be a Structural Causal Model.  

He calls abstractions like the periodic table abstract direct representations to distinguish them from models (2007b). Modeling seeks to isolate the important features of the target phenomena, allowing the modeler to understand and manipulate important elements of the phenomena in simulations. John Rawls’s representatives to the original position, for instance, are not only abstractions of real persons. They are idealizations that isolate particular aspects of persons that are relevant to justification as a choice, specifically their thin theory of rationality, and their values (in the form of primary goods). Isolating these features is important for modeling the agreement procedure in Rawls’s theory.

Nope. It is sufficient to point out that people will insure themselves against various contingencies. They may stipulate for collective insurance with moral hazard provision. But then again they may not. What matters is an 'uncorrelated asymmetry' of a historicist kind. If people in a particular society have experience of Institutions working properly, they may endorse collective insurance. But if these guys have never seen any sort of Institution which didn't quickly turn into a corrupt Ponzi scheme, they won't touch the thing with a bargepole. 

Given this, we can think of social contract theories as having a general schematic form.

That schematic form is stupid shit. 

Critically, there are two sets of relevant individuals (N and N*). The first set is the representative choosers (N) constructed in the “device of representation” such as the original position (Rawls 1996, 27). The second set (N*) is composed of real individuals whose terms of interaction are to be guided by the contract/agreement.

I think everybody should love me and give me all their money and cool shiny stuff. I try to explain this to the other kids in the playground. They kick my head in. Sad.  

If the deliberations of the contractors (N) are to be relevant to the actual participants (N*), the reasoning of the former must, in some way, be shared by the latter.

If the other kids really love me and want to give me all their cool shiny stuff, they would have done so already. There is little point in my imagining the 'deliberations of contractors' such that Andrew says 'Vivek is so lovely. I'm going to give him all my money' and then Belinda says 'Vivek is more than lovely. He is super-duper sexy and I'm going to him my entire collection of Barbie dolls which he will enjoy penetrating with his needle dick'. Charlie says 'All us boys are super jelly of Vivek's needle dick. I want to give him my entire collection of Spiderman comics'. This process goes on till we reach Zack who says 'Vivek is God. Let us all worship him and build gigantic Temples to him and his needle dick!' 

There is, however, considerable debate about what it means for reasons to be shared in this sense (see Public Reason and Public Justification).

Very true. The other kids are constantly debating as to what it means to share my reason for thinking my needle dick makes me beloved of all.  

The other main parameter in the model is the deliberative setting (M),

I stipulate that it should be the birthday party thrown for me by the Galactic Federation.  

in which the model choosers (N) endorse some rules, principles, or norms (R).

The norm should be that needle-dicks are considered the greatest adornment a man can have.  


Given all of this, we can identify a general model of social contract theories:

General Model of the Social Contract: N chooses R in M and this gives N* reason to endorse and comply with R in the real world insofar as the reasons N has for choosing R in M can be shared by N*.

But, in that case N* would already be complying with R. There is no need for any fucking deliberation or justification of shared reasons. Everybody who is alive breathes in and out. We don't need a Social Contract which mentions this 'norm'. 

Each of these parameters (N,M,R,N*) can be specified in any number of ways.

By people who have nothing better to do and who have shit for brains.  

How contract theorists model the representative choosers (N) is determined by our (actual) justificatory problem and what is relevant to solving it.

Justificatory problems only arise where a matter is justiciable or otherwise protocol bound. But, even in those circumstances, 'transferable utility'- i.e. bribes or threats- can remove the problem from that venue.  

A major divide among contemporary social contract theories thus involves defining the justificatory problem.

It is a Tarskian primitive. It has no definition.  

A distinction is often drawn between the Hobbesian/Lockean (“contractarian”) and Rousseavian/Kantian (“contractualist”) interpretations of the justificatory problem. These categories are imprecise, and there is often as much difference within these two approaches as between them, yet, nevertheless, the distinction can be useful for isolating some key disputes in contemporary social contract theory.

Not really. The plain fact is the Social Contract is 'incomplete'. No doubt, one could take a mystical or pietistic view of it but the Anglo-Saxon tradition is allergic to such moonshine.  


Among those “contractarians” who—very roughly—can be called followers of Hobbes and/or Locke, the crucial justificatory task is, as Gauthier (1991, 16) puts it, to resolve the “foundational crisis” of morality:
From the standpoint of the agent, moral considerations present themselves as constraining his choices and action,

just as material considerations do. I want to give Zelensky ten billion dollars. Sadly, I don't got a pot to piss in. Sad.  

in ways independent of his desires, aims, and interests…. And so we ask, what reason can a person have for recognizing and accepting a constraint that is independent of his desires and interests? … [W]hat justifies paying attention to morality, rather than dismissing it as an appendage of outworn beliefs?'

People feel shitty when they do stuff they feel is immoral. Their morale collapses. They don't feel like getting out of bed in the morning. They take to drink or drugs.  

If our justificatory problem is not simply to understand what morality requires, but whether morality ought to be paid attention to, or instead dismissed as a superstition based on outmoded metaphysical theories, then obviously the parties to the agreement must not employ moral judgments in their reasoning.

Also they should not employ scientific judgments in their reasoning- stuff like 'if we all decapitate ourselves and shove our heads up our poopers so as to express disapprobation of Narendra Modi, then we will fucking die'. This is clearly a metaphysical argument coz it assumes that we die when our body starts rotting.  

Another version of this concern is Gregory Kavka’s (1984) description of the project to reconcile morality with prudence.

Kavka's toxin is a thought experiment which shows that it can be prudent to have bizarre ideas about what is moral- or, indeed, material.  

On both these accounts, the aim of the contract is to show that commitment to morality is an effective way to further one’s non-moral aims and interests, answering the question “why be moral?”

If we evolved through natural selection on an uncertain fitness landscape, morality may have survival value. But the same is true of hypocrisy not to mention farting loudly when Professors of worthless subjects start virtue signalling like crazy. 

The political version of this project, is similar, though the target of justification is a set of political rules or constitution rather than morality generally (Buchanan 2000[1975], Coleman 1985, Kavka 1986, Sugden 2018). This “contractarian” project is reductionist in a pretty straightforward sense: it derives moral or political reasons from non-moral ones. Or, to use Rawls’s terminology, it attempts to generate the reasonable out of the rational (1996, 53).

Rawlsian shite looked like the after-life of the Warren Court. Its purpose was to turn kids in Ivy League Law Skools into fucking Federalists.  But Sowell and Clarence Thomas got there first. 

T
2.2 Idealization and Identification

The core idea of social contract theories, we have been stressing, is that the deliberation of the parties is supposed to model the justificatory problem of ordinary moral agents and citizens.

In which case a concrete model would already exist- or, rather, there are concrete models with associated data-sets. But we already have a large class of specialists in constitutional law and Poli Sci and so forth.  

Now this pulls social contract theories in two opposing directions. On the one hand, if the deliberations of the hypothetical parties are to model our problem and their conclusions are to be of relevance to us, the parties must be similar to us. The closer the parties are to “you and me” the better their deliberations will model you and me, and be of relevance to us. On the other hand, the point of contract theories is to make headway on our justificatory problem by constructing parties that are models of you and me, suggesting that some idealization is necessary and salutary in constructing a model of justification. To recognize that some forms of idealization are problematic does not imply that we should embrace what Gaus has called “justificatory populism” that every person in society must actually assent to the social and moral institutions in question (Gaus 1996, 130–131). Such a standard would take us back to the older social contract tradition based on direct consent and modern contract theories are concerned with appeals to our reason, not our self-binding power of consent.

The trouble is these guys are stupid. They can't appeal to our reason anymore than I can sexually appeal to any female not an actual anopheles mosquito.  

2.4 Doxastic vs. Evaluative

Any representation of the reasoning of the parties will have two elements that need to be specified: 1) doxastic and 2) evaluative. These elements, when combined, create a complete model that will specify how and why representatives in the contractual model choose or agree to some set of social rules. The first (doxastic) is the specification of everything the representatives in the original position know or at least believe. Choice in the contractual model in the broadest sense, is an attempt by the parties to choose a set of rules that they expect will be better than in some baseline condition, such as “generalized egoism” (Rawls, 1999: 127) a “state of nature” (Hobbes 1651) or the rules that they currently have (Binmore, 2005; Buchanan 2000 [1975]). To do this, they need representations of the baseline and of state of the world under candidate set of rules). Without either of these doxastic representations, the choice problem would be indeterminate.

If it is determinate then it comes under the rubric of observed behaviour, not choice theory.  

Rawls famously imposes severe doxastic constraints on his parties to the social contract by imposing a thick veil of ignorance that eliminates information about the specific details of each individual and the world they live in.

We already suffer under that veil. I don't know whether I'll be hit by a bus or whether my Pension Fund will fail or if nuclear war might break out. That's why I invest in 'hedges'- some of an ontologically dysphoric kind.  


In addition to specifying what the representatives believe to be the case about the world and the results of their agreement, there must also be some standard by which the representative parties can evaluate different contractual possibilities.

The point about Knightian Uncertainty is that it makes you less willing to invest time and money in 'deliberation'. The 'regret minimizing' course is to invest in hedges and to remain on the que vive to exit venues which are less robust and thus more likely to turn to shit.  

They must be able to rank the options on the basis of their values,

Why? It is a complete waste of time. Admittedly, I may enjoy ranking Super-Model on the basis of how good they were in bed with me- in my imagination- but that's because imagining such sexual encounters can be quite satisfying if- like me- you are poor and ugly and have a fucking horrible personality.  

whatever those may be. Rawls models parties to the contractual situation as, at least initially, having only one metric of value: primary goods.

Rawls only became a Professor so as to get his greedy little mitts on some 'primary goods'. He wasn't concerned with secondary goods- like being famous and getting paid lots of money for books he shat out. 

They choose the conception of justice they do insofar as they believe it will likely generate the most primary goods for them and their descendants.

No. They choose the mode of production which does so. Economics isn't Jurisprudence. Why not say 'people choose their conception of Flatulence on the basis of what they believe will generate the most primary goods.' That's why they deny having farted in the board meeting though cheerfully admitting to have done so when attending my last poetry reading.  

3. Modeling Agreement

Social contract theories fundamentally differ in whether the parties reason differently or the same. As we have seen (§2.3) in Rawls’s Original Position, everyone reasons the same: the collective choice problem is reduced to the choice of one individual. Any one person’s decision is a proxy for everyone else. In social contracts of this sort, the description of the parties (their motivation, the conditions under which they choose) does all the work: once we have fully specified the reasoning of one party, the contract has been identified.

The fly in this ointment is 'uncorrelated asymmetries' some of which no 'veil of ignorance' can hide. For a start, being dead may be totes cool coz you'd be like Caspar the friendly ghost who gets up to all sorts of adventures.  However, if you aint dead, there is no means of knowing this is the case. 

What is true of being dead is also true of being behind the 'veil of ignorance'. Rawls may say, 'trust me, it will be fine.' but Caspar might make a similar claim about jumping out of the window so as to have a great time as a friendly ghost. 

It is prudent and 'regret-minimizing' to tell both Rawls and Caspar to fuck off. But if nobody will get behind the 'veil of ignorance' save for a bundle of cash here and now, then this gedanken fails immediately. 

The alternative view is that, even after we have specified the parties (including their rationality, values and information), they continue to disagree in their rankings of possible social contracts. On this view, the contract only has a determinate result if there is some way to commensurate the different rankings of each individual to yield an agreement (D’Agostino 2003).

Contracts don't have 'determinate results' because unexpected things happen or people make mistakes. Agreement too doesn't greatly matter if there are local substitutes for the Contract- e.g. an informal arrangement of a type it would be too much trouble to make justiciable.  

We can distinguish four basic agreement mechanisms of doing this.
3.1 Consent

Consent does not necessarily mean agreement nor does agreement always result in consent.  


The traditional social contract views of Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau crucially relied on the idea of consent.

No. They relied on prevalent ideas about the origin of various customary practices. But this reliance was not 'crucial' at all. What mattered to Hobbes, Locke and other such scribblers was whether there was a market for their shite. These guys weren't doing mathematics. They were merely indulging in a fashionable type of polemics or propaganda.  

For Locke only “consent of Free-men” could make them members of the government (Locke 1689, §117).

Because Locke lived in a country where eunuch slaves did not become Viziers. 

In the hands of these theorists—and in much ordinary discourse—the idea of “consent” implies a normative power to bind oneself.

Nonsense. A person may consent to a medical procedure but can't bind herself to stay still as the surgeon chops off her leg. Somebody else must apply suitable restraints. As for 'normative power', that is a justiciable matter. Some people may be found to lack capacity to consent while others may not.  

When one reaches “the age of consent” one is empowered to make certain sorts of binding agreements—contracts.

This is a justiciable matter. A person of legal age may yet lack capacity to consent to certain things.  

By putting consent at the center of their contracts

where it already was.  

these early modern contract theorists (1) were clearly supposing that individuals had basic normative powers over themselves (e.g. self-ownership) before they entered into the social contract (a point that Hume (1748) stressed), and (2) brought the question of political obligation to the fore.

No. They may have made such additional stipulations but then again may have considered them to be otiose. Nothing is added to the notion of capacity to contract by speaking of 'self-ownership' or 'normative power' or 'moral autonomy' or a soul shriven in Christ.  

If the parties have the power to bind themselves by exercising this normative power, then the upshot of the social contract was obligation.

This is a justiciable matter. Obligations may arise whether or not 'normative power' is exercised. The law of Torts makes this clear.  

As Hobbes (1651, 81 [chap xiv,¶7) insisted, covenants bind; that is why they are “artificial chains” (1651, 138 [chap. xxi, ¶5).

But law itself is 'artificial reason'.  

Both of these considerations have come under attack in contemporary social contract theories, especially the second. According to Buchanan, the key development of recent social contract theory has been to distinguish the question of what generates political obligation (the key concern of the consent tradition in social contract thought) from the question of what constitutional orders or social institutions are mutually beneficial and stable over time (1965).

Obligation and Entitlement are best understood as Hohfeldian incidents. Social Contract theory ignored this fact and thus ended up shitting higher than its arsehole. 

The stability of Constitutional orders and Social Institutions is a function of exogenous factors- e.g. whether balance of power considerations militate against invasion or insurrection. 

The nature of a person’s duty to abide by the law or social rules is a matter of morality as it pertains to individuals (Rawls 1999, 293ff),

It may be or it may not be. Morality may confine itself to the sphere of what is not justiciable. On the other hand, laws and contracts may have 'moral clauses'. But what satisfies a 'moral clause' may have nothing to do with what most people consider to be Morality. 

while the design and justification of political and social institutions is a question of public or social morality. Thus, in Buchanan’s view, a crucial feature of more recent contractual thought has been to refocus political philosophy on public or social morality rather than individual obligation. In most modern social contract theories, including Rawls’s, consent and obligation play almost no role whatsoever.

But those theories play no role whatsoever in actual politics or jurisprudence. On the other hand, Quantum Physicists are constantly hectoring elementary particles to get behind a fucking veil of ignorance already.  


Although contemporary social contract theorists still sometimes employ the language of consent, the core idea of contemporary social contract theory is agreement. “Social contract views work from the intuitive idea of agreement” (Freeman 2007a, 17). One can endorse or agree to a principle without that act of endorsement in any way binding one to obey. Social contract theorists as diverse as Samuel Freeman and Jan Narveson (1988, 148) see the act of agreement as indicating what reasons we have; agreement is a “test” or a heuristic (see §5).

Or a way to curb a nuisance. I agree that Neo-liberalism is the fucking pits if you will stop going on about it and just let me finish my dinner in peace.  

The “role of unanimous collective agreement” is in showing “what we have reasons to do in our social and political relations” (Freeman 2007, 19).

But, no 'unanimous collective agreements' exist. We could say the same thing about flying unicorns.  

Thus understood, the agreement is not itself a binding act—it is not a performative that somehow creates obligation—but is reason-revealing (Lessnoff 1986).

Only in so far as flying unicorns are 'reason-revealing'. 

If individuals are rational, what they agree to reflects the reasons they have.

Not if it is rational to agree that flying unicorns shat on your head if that is what gets you out of having to do the washing-up.  

In contemporary contract theories such as Rawls’s, the problem of justification takes center stage.

But our justifications are different depending on who we are answering to.  

Rawls’s revival of social contract theory in A Theory of Justice thus did not base obligations on consent, though the apparatus of an “original agreement” persisted. Recall that for Rawls (1999, 16) the aim is to settle “the question of justification … by working out a problem of deliberation.”

Deliberation is costly. Why do it save for tangible reward? Moreover, we must consider its opportunity cost. If one polity focuses on 'deliberating' about the Social Contract, while its rivals focus on Science and Technology, there is a good chance that the latter will prevail in a conflict and thus those 'deliberations' will prove to have been counterproductive. 


Given that the problem of justification has taken center stage, the second aspect of contemporary social contract thinking appears to fall into place: its reliance on models of counterfactual agreement.

It relies on imputing stupid ideas to people.  

The aim is to model the reasons of citizens, and so we ask what they would agree to under conditions in which their agreements would be expected to track their reasons.

Never agree to anything save for tangible reward.  

Contemporary contract theory is, characteristically, doubly counterfactual. Certainly, no prominent theorist thinks that questions of justification are settled by an actual survey of attitudes towards existing social arrangements, and are not settled until such a survey has been carried out. The question, then, is not “Are these arrangements presently the object of an actual agreement among citizens?” (If this were the question, the answer would typically be “No”.) The question, rather, is “Would these arrangements be the object of an agreement if citizens were surveyed?”

Surely, everybody is aware that, firstly, surveys can be rigged to yield any outcome and, in any case, people soon get bored and fill them out at random. 

What matters is opportunity cost. Are smart people exiting or entering the jurisdiction? Polities have to do different things dependent on exogenous circumstances.  

There is a reading of the (first-order) counterfactual question, “Would R be the object of agreement if___” which, as indicated, is still resolutely empirical in some sense.

Not if the relevant state of the world is not fully knowable. In that case what is 'empirical' is beliefs about that state of the world. But that is dependent on the agents epistemic state. There is an intensional fallacy here.  

This is the reading where what is required of the theorist is that she try to determine what an actual survey of actual citizens would reveal about their actual attitudes towards their system of social arrangements. (This is seldom done, of course; the theorist does it in her imagination. See, though, Klosko 2000). But there is another interpretation that is more widely accepted in the contemporary context. On this reading, the question is no longer a counterfactual question about actual reactions; it is, rather, a counterfactual question about counterfactual reactions—it is, as we have said, doubly counterfactual. Framing the question is the first counterfactual element: “Would R be the object of agreement if they were surveyed?” Framed by this question is the second counterfactual element, one which involves the citizens, who are no longer treated empirically, i.e. taken as given, but are, instead, themselves considered from a counterfactual point of view—as they would be if (typically) they were better informed or more impartial, etc. The question for most contemporary contract theorists, then, is, roughly: “If we surveyed the idealized surrogates of the actual citizens in this polity, what social arrangements would be the object of an agreement among them?”

The answer is the same if we survey flying unicorns. They can be quite chatty you know.  


Famously, Ronald Dworkin (1975) has objected that a (doubly) hypothetical agreement cannot bind any actual person.

Nor can flying unicorns sodomize them.  

For the hypothetical analysis to make sense,

flying unicorns must leave your asshole alone. 

it must be shown that hypothetical persons in the contract can agree to endorse and comply with some principle regulating social arrangements. Suppose that it could be shown that your surrogate (a better informed, more impartial version of you) would agree to a principle.

For this to be shown, the surrogate must be able to give you information which can immediately improve your life.  It is reasonable to exchange access to that information for agreement to some meaningless shite. 

What has that to do with you? Where this second-stage hypothetical analysis is employed, it seems to be proposed that you can be bound by agreements that others, different from you, would have made. While it might (though it needn’t) be reasonable to suppose that you can be bound by agreements that you would yourself have entered into if, given the opportunity, it seems crazy to think that you can be bound by agreements that, demonstrably, you wouldn’t have made even if you had been asked.

I'd be willing to be bound by agreements made on my behalf by a guy whose guidance and advise can turn me into a billionaire super-stud. But, if such a person existed, who the fuck would bother with Social Choice theory?

This criticism is decisive, however, only if the hypothetical social contract is supposed to invoke your normative power to self-bind via consent. That your surrogate employs her power to self-bind would not mean that you had employed your power. Again, though, the power to obligate oneself is not typically invoked in the contemporary social contract: the problem of deliberation is supposed to help us make headway on the problem of justification. So the question for contemporary hypothetical contract theories is whether the hypothetical agreement of your surrogate tracks your reasons to accept social arrangements, a very different issue (Stark 2000).

Why track the reasoning of a guy who aint a billionaire super-stud? It is a different matter that you may want a superior surrogate to tack your 'values'. But their reasoning and 'reasons' should be different and superior from our own. Also, they should ride flying unicorns while farting melodiously. Should their first name be Bo- like Bo Derek? You don't come across a lot of people named Bo nowadays, do you? I wonder why that is. Perhaps some fucking Social Choice Theorists are tracking those reasons. They truly are a waste of space.  

Wednesday, 2 August 2023

Parel on Pax Gandhiana

 Anthony Parel believes that Mahatma Gandhi's biggest contribution was to 'political philosophy'. This begs the question as to what political philosophy has contributed. I suppose, one might say that the Western Europeans formulated a theory of representative government under the rule of Law with a system of constitutional checks and balances. However, this was based on institutions which already existed. Here 'philosophy' was merely the propaganda of established factions struggling for political mastery.

Still,  thanks to the British, there can be no question that India did become a constitutional democracy with a Republican form of Government which has many points of resemblance to those of Anglo-Saxon polities. Indian political parties- in so far as they are dynastic- however, seem more similar to the traditional 'durbari' courtly culture of the sub-continent. Nevertheless, in terms of 'political philosophy' it is difficult to see any lasting contribution Gandhi made. There had been non-violent protests of various types, in England and India, before he appeared on the scene and such agitations continue to exist all over the world. There have been three well publicized post-Independence Gandhian initiatives but, we must admit, they failed utterly. These were

1) Bhoodhan- i.e. voluntary donation of land. Vinobha Bhave's scheme was utterly useless when it wasn't mischievous simply.

2) 'Sampurna Kranti'- Jayprakash Narayan's 'total revolution' which was just as useless and mischievous as, his former mentor, Bhave's crackpot scheme. 

3) Anna Hazare's 'Lokpal agitation'. Having 'ombudsmen' proved to be no panacea. This was theater of a absurdist sort. 

Parel, in a memorial lecture delivered a decade ago, had this to say about 'Pax Gandhiana' which did not exist. Pax Brittanica did exist. It was based on the Indian Army kicking ass. Gandhi demanded again and again that Britain hand over control of the Army to him as head of the INC. It was this maximal demand that gave Gandhi salience. Pax Gandhiana could only mean Gandhi's promise to call off any agitation before it achieved anything or else to simply get his people to queue up and go to jail rather than create a public nuisance. But this was not enough to prevent violence. The Government still had to spend money shooting revolutionaries. 

Gandhi’s nonviolence means different things to different people. To some it means a personal virtue,

I suppose, if you were brought up wolves, you might consider not biting or knifing random strangers to be a 'personal virtue'. The plain fact is, the vast majority of people are non-violent. True, in India, some young Revolutionaries did advocate the violent overthrow of the Government, but nobody seriously believed that the average Indian barrister/politician- however seditious- was capable of waging war on the King Emperor.

to others it means pacifism,

Though Gandhi recruited soldiers for the Army and approved of India's decision to intervene militarily in Kashmir.  

and to still others it means living in small, isolated, stateless communes.

Where? As far as I know, all such communes exist within existing States.  

There are those who believe that nonviolence means treating the state as the enemy or at least being ready to agitate against it at every turn.

This is antagonomia- or simply being a paranoid nutcase with nothing better to do than protest against everything.  

A close examination of the evidence shows that it means something different from all this. It means first, a general principle of reorganizing society, polity and the international order;

What is the point of having such a principle if no reorganization actually occurs? True, if you believe in karma, you might get reborn on a paradisal planet where nobody has sex. That's worth giving up sex for- right? 

and secondly, a praxis that translates the principle into action through private and public institutions, most notably the state. Seen in this light, what he wanted to achieve for India was much more than its mere political independence.

To be fair, other politicians at the time wanted India to be rich and secure, not independent but starving and unable to fight off a ruthless invading army- like that of the Japanese.  

He wanted to introduce into India a new nonviolent social and political order, one seeking a new equilibrium between consent, coercion, nonviolence, and the state.

Towards this great end, Gandhi demanded that the British transfer all power- including control of the Army- to the Indian National Congress which, he later admitted, was a Hindu organization. Sadly, other parties or communities were not enthused by the prospect. In fairness, it must be said. non-Muslims were similarly reticent in demanding Islamic rule in Muslim majority areas. 

Gandhi was nicer than Hitler who wished to introduce Europe to a new nonviolent social and political order where everybody anticipated his wishes and were beforehand in exterminating themselves or performing slave labour or raising up blue eyed, blonde, babies to serve the Fuhrer. 

Let us call this Pax Gandhiana, seeking to replace Pax Britannica.

Sadly, without Pax Brittanica, Gandhi's program would have found no takers in India.  

Juxtaposing Pax Gandhiana and Pax Britannica makes good historic sense. After all, it was Pax Britannica that created the historical conditions necessary for the possibility of Pax Gandhiana.

A thing may be possible but too fucking foolish for anybody to bother doing it.  

Until Pax Britannica pacified India, the country remained more or less a collection of discordant, if not warring, political entities. But Pax Britannica was able to pacify India only by conquest,

unless there was no battle, the local people preferred British rule- as happened in Coorg- or else the Prince preferred a pension from the Brits to trying to make it on his own.  

and the violence that went with it.

The humiliating truth is there wasn't much violence. As Disraeli said, India hadn't been conquered.  

In the striking words of Sir James Fitzjames Stephen,

a barrister who spent a couple of years in India as Legal member of the Viceroy's council.  No military operations were conducted during the period.

Pax Britannica represented “peace compelled by force.”

This could also be said of the British Isles at that time.  

Peace and compulsion came together, stayed together and worked together.

This is true of any country with a standing army.  

The question is whether Pax Gandhiana can be maintained by consent, instead of compulsion.

Disraeli, speaking in 1857, stated the obvious. The Brits ruled India according to its own customs though, no doubt, they introduced some innovations welcomed by certain classes of Indians. When they departed from this wise policy, unnecessary trouble and expense was incurred.  

Pax Britannica was of course following a pattern of history according to which when the discordant units of a region fight among themselves, only external coercion could pacify them.

There is no such pattern to history. Europe fought two big wars in the last century. It wasn't pacified by external coercion. The Allies prevailed. America only came into the War after Hitler, very foolishly, declared war on it.  

This role empires have always played, most notably the Roman Empire.

Nonsense! The Egyptians weren't fighting among themselves. Rome just wanted to grab its wealth and rich harvests of grain.  

The foundations of Pax Romana, Machiavelli tells us, were arma and jura, arms and laws, introduced in that order. Arma or conquest had to come first, only then could jura or laws enforce peace.

Very true. The Romans would have looked silly if they kept promulgating laws for places they hadn't conquered.  

Given this pattern of history, Gandhi’s attempt might seem idealistic if not quixotic.

Or it might look like the absurd claims made by the leaders of cults. On the other hand, Socioproctology isn't a cult. It is a scientific fact that only by donating money to me can you avoid death and live forever.  

Is world history ready for a new equilibrium between consent, coercion, nonviolence and the state? There are of course two kinds of coercion: one based on conquest,

not necessarily. You can coerce a person by threatening them with dire financial or other such consequences.  

the other on consent.

People consent to being coerced? Why? I suppose they might think it is for their own good. But if you need to be coerced to stay on the straight and narrow, a dose of Gandhian political philosophy probably isn't your most most pressing need.  

Coercion based on consent is compatible with Gandhian nonviolence. Similarly, there are two kinds of state, one based on conquest and the other on consent.

India and Japan and China and Egypt and other such ancient polities are neither. Their first Kings or Emperors were legendary. They may have fought wars but they were not considered conquerors of their own countries. 

The one based on consent is compatible with Gandhian nonviolence.

No it isn't. People may have sex with each other. That's just wrong.  

To understand Pax Gandhiana then we have to understand the new equilibrium that is sought between consent, coercion, nonviolence and the state.

Everybody just did what Gandhi told them to, then that equilibrium might exist....till a more sensible species displaced ours. 

Although from the very beginning of his career Gandhi had an intuitive grasp of the kind of nonviolence and the kind of state that he wanted for India, it was only towards the end of his career that he felt the need to give a philosophic account of it.

By which time it was clear that the INC would follow Nehru's path, not that of the Mahacrackpot.  

The late epiphany is not surprising. For only when a great historic movement has passed its apogee do we grasp its philosophy.

Which was- surprise! surprise!- stupid shit.  

This was true of Gandhi and the movement he initiated.

No it wasn't. He himself thought 'Hind Swaraj' was a masterwork.  

The owl of Minerva, as Hegel reminds us, spreads its wings only at the dusk, not at the dawn.

Owls, as the Hindi expression 'ulloo ka patta' reminds us, are as stupid as shit. The same was true of Hegel. Prussia was a shitty polity. Large swathes of it are now Polish or Russian.  

That is to say, only towards the end of his career did Gandhi make an effort to understand the philosophy of what he was doing.

Which suggests that understanding the philosophy of what you are doing is useless. Don't bother with it till you are utterly senile and have failed at everything you set out to do. 

So in 1946, barely two years before his death, he reminisced how a few years earlier he had attempted to write a thesis on nonviolence: “When I was in detention in the Aga Khan Palace, I once sat down to write a thesis on India as a protagonist of nonviolence.

If you get drunk and pass out and wake up to find yourself bruised, battered, and coated in cum, you have been a protagonist of nonviolence.  Why write a thesis about it? 

But as I proceeded with my writing, I could not go on. I had to stop.”

The man wasn't utterly shameless.  

(He does not tell us how far the writing had progressed or whether he left behind a manuscript of the incomplete thesis.) In any case, we have here one of the most remarkable statements found in all of Gandhi’s writings: the apostle of nonviolence finding himself unable to complete a thesis on nonviolence.

To be fair, he didn't really believe in that nonsense.  

There is a hint, however, of why he stopped writing. He stopped because he realized that India in her present condition was not ready to become a nonviolent country, neither philosophically nor socially nor politically.

Indians objected to being beaten or raped or murdered. Sad. But for the Brits, Indians might have reconciled themselves to being incessantly beaten or raped to death.  

This came as a shock to him. He saw with fresh clarity that Indian philosophy had made nonviolence such an esoteric virtue that the vast majority of the people were exempt from it.

Fair point. If you are an agriculturist you are committing violence to microbes in the soil. Not everybody can be an usurer or arbitrager.  

And so long as this was the case, there was no way India could ever become a nonviolent country, let alone a model for others.

So, India first had to become a country exclusively inhabited by wealthy Jain financiers after which everybody could live a non-violent life. The now entirely celibate population would entirely die out with seventy or eighty years.  

He explains: “There are two aspects of Hinduism. There is on the one hand the historical Hinduism with its Untouchability, superstitious worship of stocks and stones, animal sacrifice and so on. On the other, we have the Hinduism of the Gita, the Upanishads and Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra which is the acme of ahimsa and oneness of all creation, pure worship of one immanent, formless imperishable God.

The Bhagvad Gita says you can kill people if that is your job. The Vyadha Gita depicts a fully enlightened dude who is a wealthy butcher or meat-vendor by profession.  

'Ahimsa which to me is the chief glory of Hinduism has been sought to be explained away by our people as being meant for sannyasis only. I do not share that view.”

 Sannyasis aren't allowed to sleep naked with young girls. Gandhi did not share this restrictive view.  

The story of Gandhi’s failed attempt to complete his thesis has a lesson for all those interested in nonviolence. The lesson is three-fold. First, if you want to create a nonviolent social and political order in India, you need a new philosophy of nonviolence, one that can bridge the gap between the life of the yogi and that of the average citizen.

There are plenty of Indian people who have come up with new philosophies of nonviolence- mine consisted of a categorical imperative to scream and shit myself any time anyone suggested I get a job- but this didn't create a nonviolent social and political order because Mummy slapped me.  

Secondly, you need a new cohesive India--a civic nation—

without separatist politicians- right? 

one that is capable of unifying by consent all its discordant elements.

Minorities should be encouraged to fuck off.  

Thirdly, you need a state that is coercive in some respects but nonviolent in others.

This describes all states. Even in Hitler's Germany or Mao's China the State did not use coercive means to compel citizens to piss and shit.  

Gandhi felt that India in 1940s had not met these conditions.

About 100,000 Indians were arrested during Quit India. 25 times as many joined the British Indian Army.  

So the first thing India needs is a new philosophy of nonviolence, one that would bring nonviolence within the reach of ordinary Indians.

Three million ordinary Indians could not escape starvation by getting arrested and thus fed by the Government in a nice Jail cell. Nothing but great wealth and robot jailors can bring Gandhian nonviolence within the reach of the great mass of people in any country. 

Gandhi wanted ahimsa to be a civic virtue, and not merely a monastic virtue. This called for the de-saffronization of nonviolence or rescuing it from yogis and holy men.

But yogis and holy men aren't constantly making a nuisance of themselves and getting arrested. Plenty of Jains and Vaishnavas and so on were living a pretty non-violent life. They had skills and capital of various sorts and thus didn't need to engage in agriculture. It is perfectly acceptable to become a 'shravaka' without wholly giving up various types of employment in which some minimal harm to life-forms occurs.  

Gandhi could bring about such a major change convincingly only if he had the support of Indian philosophy. For this he turned to the Bhagavad Gita.

He should have turned to Jainism. Srimad Rajachandra was a shravaka who didn't take full sanyas. He has inspired countless people to adopt the Jain lifestyle though some, no doubt, remain Vaishnav or Smartha or whatever.  

His voluminous writings on the Gita—commentaries, translations and concordance—are of critical importance here.

They are ignorant, incoherent, nonsense. There's a good reason Indians don't regard Gandhi as a philosopher. Darshan Gyan is cognitively demanding. You can't just make it up as you go along.  

In his interpretation, the central teaching of the Gita is its ethics, the ethics of right action, action that benefits the agent and society, both materially and spiritually.

This simply isn't true. God is revealed as the sole efficient cause. Devotional piety is the soteriological remedy available to all.  

An action, to be right, had to meet the following five conditions.

Actions need not be right. The Supreme Lord takes on the sins of his devotee.  

First, it had to restrain such vices as greed, aggression and egoism, and promote such virtues as detachment, devotion to duty, the work ethic and empathy for fellow human beings, regardless of religion or caste.

So, a surgeon should not operate on a patient to save her life. Why? Because that action does not restrain any of the vices listed above and promotes no virtue save in the sense that any other lawful action of the surgeon does so. 

Secondly, the action had to be good in itself, i. e. good according to the requirements of one’s calling or profession (swadharma).

So, if you are an assassin, killing people is cool.  

Thirdly, the benefit that accrues to the agent should not be allowed to interfere with the good that might accrue to the public also (lokasamgraha).

So, it should have no social 'opportunity cost'. But Gandhi's actions did have such a cost. If you take up other people's time by making them pay attention to you, they incur an opportunity cost. Gandhi & Co may have gained by going to jail. But the taxpayer suffered by reason of having to house and feed them.  

Fourthly, the intention had to be free of selfish motives, the focus being “not on the fruit of one’s action” but on the goodness of the action itself.

In which case no action is good if doing it is good for you in some sense.  

Finally, both the end and the means had to be good.

Means are good only if they realize the desired end. If the means are good-in-themselves, they are ends. It may be that one good end entails another good end or that one only does one good thing in order to get another good thing done. But, it is foolish to reject neutral means even if they have good ends.  

Now Gandhi firmly believed that action that met these conditions would ipso facto be nonviolent.

The vast majority of actions are non-violent. The trouble is we can never be sure what the actual consequences of our actions will be. That's why God, in the Bhagvad Gita, takes on our sins. Otherwise morality might counsel paralysis. Occasionalism is a useful metaphysical doctrine in that respect. 

There was nothing more that one needed to do to lead a nonviolent life than to practice the ethic of right action.

Though most of us manage to lead a non-violent life without practicing retarded shite.  

This is a major break-through in the history of the philosophy of nonviolence.

No. The arguments re. the impossibility of non-violence were at least 2000 years old.  

To act nonviolently, then, there was no need to be a yogi.

There was also no need to follow the nutter Gandhi who wrote an article demanding that everybody kill dogs because not killing bow-wows is a horrible type of violence.  

The new nonviolence that he proposes is no longer a monastic virtue, but a civic virtue, the virtue of the good citizen and the good statesman.

Plenty of such existed in India. Srinivas Sastri wasn't exactly a serial killer.  

One acts nonviolently, whenever one’s action meets the conditions necessary for acting well, irrespective of one’s station in life, and irrespective of one’s religion or ethnicity.

Gandhi thought Sarabhai acted non-violently when he got a whole bunch of dogs killed.  

But Gandhi faced two major obstacles here. The first was the common belief that to act nonviolently one had to be a yogi who engaged only in other-worldly activities.

There was no such belief. You have to be a yogi to devote yourself to Yoga. But, Yogishvara, the Lord of Yoga, (i.e. Krishna) was a great warrior who killed plenty of demons and so forth.  

Those engaged in this-worldly activities—the rest of humanity--were thought morally incapable of acting nonviolently simply because the activities were this-worldly.

No. They were thought capable of acting non-violently if that's what they really wanted to do.  

Gandhi repudiates the distinction between this-worldly and other-worldly activities as being totally irrelevant to today’s conception of action.

 This-worldly activities are things done to gain utility here and now. Other-worldly activities are things done which get you a better after-life.  

Besides, the common belief had no standing in the Gita. He writes: “The common belief is that dharma and artha are mutually antagonistic to each other.

Not if you are earning money honestly.  

‘In worldly activities such as trade and commerce. dharma has no place.

Yet, it had a reputational benefit. Millionaires are trusted more when they give lots of money to charity.  

Let dharma operate in the field of dharma, and artha in that of artha’—we hear many secular people say. In my opinion, the author of the Gita has dispelled this delusion. He has drawn no line of demarcation between moksha and worldly pursuits.”

If you follow the path of devotional piety- sure. But then a devotional text is scarcely likely to say otherwise.  

The second objection was that the ethic of Gita applied only to the Hindus. Gandhi’s response was twofold. First, if you could find an equivalent ethic in the religious texts of other religions, it would be enough. It was axiomatic to him that a common deep ethics underlay all historical religions. Many distinguished Muslims such as Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan agreed with Gandhi on this.

Lord Bhikku Parekh says Gandhi forced his wife to cook mutton chops for Azad. To deny a Muslim meat is violence. So is not killing dogs. 

Gandhi went even further: the Gita, as interpreted by him, taught a universal, non-sectarian ethics.

Nothing wrong in that. We are welcome to interpret Scripture in a way that helps us become better people because, as better people, we can come closer to God- which is the whole point of reading Scripture. 

Gandhi writes: “This is a work which persons belonging to all faiths can read. It does not favor any sectarian point of view. It teaches nothing but pure ethics.” What he means is that the deep ethic of the Gita, like the deep ethic of every great religious text, teaches a universal, non-sectarian ethic. As a universal ethics, it can bridge not only the sectarian divide, but also the secular- religious divide. Where universal ethic is involved, the distinction between the secular and the religious becomes meaningless. One is reminded here of St. Thomas Aquinas’ observation that the ethic of the Ten Commandments is comparable to the secular ethics of Natural Law.

Observing 'secular ethics' only gets you 'congruent' not 'condign merit' which, for Catholics, is not enough to get you salvation. If there is Natural Law, there may also be Natural Religion and who is to say my Religion is not more natural than yours? 

Many non-Hindus agreed with Gandhi that the Gita taught a universal ethic. Muhamad Currim Chagla, a distinguished Muslim, was one of them. A jurist, diplomat, cabinet minister, and statesman, Chagla wrote the following in his Autobiography: “I have…never empathized with the sannyasi ideal

Chaghla knew the hadith- 'There is no monasticism in Islam'. 

…The better and more satisfying philosophy is the one that the Bhagavad Gita teaches—the philosophy of non-attachment.

The Prophet Muhammad, peace be upon him, was not attached to any material thing.  The purpose of reading Scripture is not actually to get you to buy more cool shiny stuff of the internet- or so I have been told. 

One must not give up anything, one must do one’s duty in whatever stations of life one is placed; and having done one’s duty one must remain indifferent to the results. The doing of the duty is in one’s own hand—the achievement of results one must leave to Providence or whatever power it may be that guides our destinies.”

Nothing wrong with that at all. Many an atheist has been led back to their ancestral religion by reading the Scripture of a different sect. 

But according to Gandhi the person who best implemented the new philosophy of nonviolence was Gopal Krishna Gokhale,

who, strangely enough, wasn't a serial killer.  

his acknowledged political guru. It was from him that he learnt the art of engaging in public life.

without stabbing people. This is an important work skill.  

A college professor,

who didn't stab people? How strange! 

editor of a learned quarterly journal,

who defied convention by not smashing in the skulls of little children 

a member of the legislative council of Bombay and of the Viceroy’s imperial legislative council, president of the Indian National Congress, the founder of Servants of India Society, Gokhale spent his entire life in this-worldly activities.

Yet, strangely enough, he didn't rape or murder anybody. It was this valuable trait that Gandhi was able to gain from Gokhale.  

Yet in all this, he maintained the highest ethical standard. Because of this, he was able to cross the sectarian divides of India, and treat every Indian fairly, regardless of religion.

Indians appreciated his abstention from stabbing or bludgeoning them.  

Gokhale’s example, Gandhi claimed, had a normative value for every Indian.

Be like Gokhale. Don't set your mother on fire.  

The yogis are no longer the models of nonviolence.

Speaking generally, Supermodels aren't notorious for beating people. If you want to wean yourself off homicide, you could do worse than emulate Heidi Klum.  

The good citizen and the good statesmen have taken the place of the yogis.

And vice versa- at least in UP where Yogi Adityanath is the Chief Minister. 

Gandhi paid Gokhale the highest tribute when he pointed out that Gokhlae’s ethics was comparable to the ethics of the 8th century BC Hebrew Prophet Isaiah.

There was no resemblance between them whatsoever. Gokhale was a moderate 'meliorist' interested in spreading useful education and progressive ideas.  However, his determination to 'Indianize' the higher administrative echelons of the Raj earned him the enmity of successive Viceroys. 

He concluded his encomium of Gokhale by citing two very famous passages from Isaiah. “And they shall beat their swords into ploughshares and their spears into pruning hooks” (Isaiah 2, 4) and “the wolf and lamb shall feed together and the lion shall eat straw like the bullock” (Isaiah, 65, 25).

 Britain is a Christian country. The quotations from Isaiah, interpreted through the filter of Virgil, referred to Pax Britannica. Under British King-Emperors, the world would become peaceful and prosperous. The British RSPCA would protect all animals from cruelty. 

Writes Gandhi: “Gokhale’s ideal in his life was to labor to bring about this state of affairs.”

No. He wasn't a maniac. He was not incessantly lecturing lions on the virtues of a vegetarian diet. What he did was useful enough in its way but it wasn't glamorous and did not enthuse the young.  

The two ethics—those of the Gita and Isaiah—Gandhi implies, can lead to comparable outcomes, viz., the reconciliation of historical enemies. The metaphors of the wolf and the lamb, the lion and the bullock, are applicable to today’s Hindus and Muslims. The reconciliation between them is possible only under the new ethic of civic nonviolence. Only civic nonviolence can pave the way for Pax Gandhiana.

Parel was speaking during the so called 'War on Terror' which killed or displaced millions of Muslim people. Whatever it was Gandhi was up to, it did not pave the way to Peace.  

II
Pax Gandhiana in India required not only a new philosophy of nonviolence, but also a new cohesive Indian political community.

Implementing crazy ideas in India requires not only a new crazy philosophy but also the replacement of Indians by crazy robots of some specific type.  

Such a political community Gandhi called a civic nation (praja).

Praja means the subject population ruled over by a Raja.  

A civic nation is different from a religion-based nation and from an ethnicity-based nation.

A religion-based or ethnicity-based nation may be a civic nation- i.e. one under the Rule of law- while a 'civil nation' may get conquered and converted into a religion-based nation or one where a particular race is the ruling class. British India could be said to be a civil nation as could independent India. 

Its basic unit is the individual considered as the citizen—a bearer of fundamental rights and a subject capable of swaraj, i. e., self-determination and self-development.

Everybody is equally capable of swaraj. However starving to death or getting killed by invaders tends to remove that capability.  

The religion based nation regards the member of a religion as its basic unit;

No. It considers territorially defined diocese or congregations to be the basic unit. People of the dominant sect may be obliged to attend collective worship to retain suffrage or qualify to hold public office. Foreigners may belong to the right sect but foreigners they remain unless they undergo Naturalization. 

and in an ethnicity-based nation, the individual as an ethnic is regarded as its basic unit.

No. A person may be of British ethnicity but may not qualify for British citizenship. Ethnic based nations are defined over specific, preferably geographically contiguous, territories where one particular ethnicity is dominant.

There was a in India a life and death struggle between these three forms of nationalism--civic nationalism, religious nationalism, and ethnic nationalism.

Nonsense! Religion trumped Language as, without much friction, first Buddhis majority Burma and then Muslim majority Pakistan went their own ways.  

Not surprisingly, Gandhi found religious nationalism and ethnic nationalism standing in the way of Pax Gandhiana.

No. He saw the 'Garam Dal' and the Revolutionaries as standing in the way of Pax Britannica which he hoped to turn into the rule of the INC under his command. He thought he could disintermediate the barristocrats and Zamindars of the Muslim League by doing a deal with the Mullahs.  

At the same time, he saw in the Indian National Congress a vehicle for civic nationalism.

No. He saw it as a vehicle for his own crackpot schemes. Congress still requires its members to be 'habitual' spinners of cotton. The bigger problem was that once Japan entered the War, Gandhi could not be sure Pax Britannica would prevail. So Congress had to launch 'Quit India' and go sulk in jail till the tide had turned in favour of the Allies.  

But he found the task of keeping the Congress faithful to its civic nationalist principles truly daunting.

It had no such principles. Gandhi himself had said, in 1939, that it was a Hindu party. Nehru had refused to appoint a popular Parsi candidate as Premier in Bombay. In Bihar, a highly qualified Muslim was passed over. Also, Nehru refused to do a deal with Fazl-ul-Haq in Bengal. Later, it would be Nehru who pulled the trigger on Partition thus leaving independent India with no Muslim headache whatsoever.  

“I can see my way of rebuilding the Congress with five true men, with whom there is neither Hindu nor Muslim nor any other. Religion is a personal matter. It ought not to affect the political field,” he writes in 1941, in near despair.

 Gandhi had already been rendered irrelevant. His last Satyagraha- in the Princely State of Rajkot- had been a miserable failure. 

This cry of the heart is a plea for both civic nationalism and a deep personal spiritual life. Only “true men”, Gandhi believes, can combine civic nationalism and deep spiritual life.

while sleeping naked with young girls and hitting up Birlas and Bajajs for money. 

By “true men” he means humans in whom true humanity has fully developed.

as opposed to giraffes in whom true humanity was only partially developed- right?  

True humanity or true humanism supplies the link between secular civic nationalism and deep spiritual life. To be truly free from religious prejudice, one has to be both truly human and truly spiritual.

No. It is enough to be wholly ignorant of religion to have no religious prejudice. If you are truly spiritual you are likely to be prejudiced against specific religions or sects which have a materialistic, not spiritual, eschatology- e.g. bodily resurrection and entry into a material Heaven from where you have a ringside seat on the equally material sufferings of the infidels who are being sodomized with flaming pitchforks in Hell. 

Gandhi referred to the experience of his civic friendship with C. F. Andrews to make his point.

They were friends and colleagues till Gandhi quietly suggested that the fellow should fuck off back to Blighty rather than try to share the limelight.  

“Andrews found in me not only a live Hindu but a live Christian. That was the secret of his nearness to me. He shared with me his innermost thoughts on religion. And he said that he must at bottom remain a true Christian if he was to be a true Hindu and Muslim.”

He was neither. Once Gandhi told the Brits to surrender to Hitler and to 'Quit India', many Anglicans turned against people like Andrews. The Quakers, too, shat the bed by introducing Quisling to Nazi nutters rather than strengthening resistance to Hitler.  

What this tells us is that to be free of religious prejudice it is not necessary to embrace anti-religious secularism.

Religion is a source of social cohesion. It makes sense to support the Established Church of a country even if you are not yourself of that Faith.  

The deep ethic underlying all historical religions is quite capable of nurturing genuine civic friendship across religious lines.

But civic friendships exist wherever there is friendship of any sort- including Northern Ireland during the troubles. Equally, no 'deep ethic' has prevented bloodshed if there is a disorganized type of exchange of population.  

Here a distinction has to be drawn between the doctrines of religions and the deep ethics of religions.

Why? Those doctrines themselves have such a concept.  

Doctrines tend to separate, ethics tend to unite.

No. What unites people is the need or the incentive to work together on mutually beneficial projects. Neither doctrines nor ethics matters in the slightest.  

Doctrines are specific to religions,

unless the religion states that 'matam' (doctrines) are sublatable and of no fundamental significance.  

while the deep ethics is common to them.

Unless it isn't. It is enough if there is a common 'vyavahara' or sittlichkeit or 'customary morality'.  

Doctrines belong to the private realm of belief, while deep religious ethics (which embodies the golden rule) belongs to the public realm of common practice.

Fuck off! Common practice tells the golden rule to go get a fucking golden shower. We don't do unto others as we would have them do unto us. A waiter gets paid to serve food to customers. He does not want the customers to serve food to him. He just wants money so as to cook and serve himself a nice dinner. 

Gandhi, cretin that he was, thought weavers must be forced to wear the cloth they wove. They preferred to sell it for a high price and to buy cheap mill-cloth for themselves. This is the principle of comparative advantage. 

The true golden rule is 'don't be a fucking asshole- unless that's what you are getting paid to be'.  

Here Gandhi falls back on his axiom that a common ethic or the golden rule underlies all historical religions. It is this ethic that provides the moral foundation for civic fraternity and civic nonviolence.

Gandhi was obviously wrong.  

Gandhi and Andrews were divided by race and religion. 

They were working on the same problem- viz. that of indentured Indian laborers in the colonies. 

Yet they were able to become the best of civic friends;

because they were colleagues. However, Gandhi kept telling Andrews to fuck off to Fiji or wherever because he didn't want to share the limelight with him.  

they were able to do so because they lived by the deep ethic of their respective religions.

No they didn't. Hinduism says- make money by practicing law, if you are a lawyer. Don't set up as a Sadhu-Mahatma while still living with your wife. If you are running an Ashram- make sure it earns a profit. Don't incessantly demand subsidies for your crack-pot schemes.'  

Presumably, Gandhi lived by the ethic of the Gita

He didn't. He was a Bania. He should have stuck to making money instead of setting up as a commentator on Scripture even though he didn't even know Sanskrit.  

and Andrews, by that of the Sermon on the Mount. They were able to do this, because they were able and willing to distinguish between the doctrines and the deep ethics of their respective religions;

How? Contra Parel, it isn't the case that the Anglican Faith says 'be nasty to darkies.'  

and they were able to do this without undermining the integrity of the doctrines in which they believed. Doctrines were adhered to at the private, belief level,

Both published religious books. That's not a 'private' activity. 

while ethics was practiced at the public, social level.

Only in the sense that everybody practices ethics at the public, social, level- which is why you don't see Rishi Sunak rudely pushing down King Charles and running off with his Crown.  

It is when adherents of religion are unable or unwilling to make this distinction that civic friendship fails.

Nothing of the sort happened in India. Jinnah and Liaquat and so forth had plenty of 'civic friendships' with non-Muslims.  

And when civic friendship fails, nonviolence also fails.

Nope. Nonviolence prevails so long as no fucking violence occurs. Thus, even if my civic friendship with you fails coz you keep telling me I'm a big fat loser who smells bad, there is no failure of nonviolence coz I remain very quiet and just cry myself to sleep at night.  

The tragedy of Jinnah and Savarkar was that they were unwilling to make a distinction between the doctrines and the ethics of their respective religions.

No. The tragedy of Savarkar was that his political career was a dismal failure. The tragedy of Jinnah was that his descendants chose India and the Zoroastrian, not the Islamic, religion. Neither had any great interest in religious doctrines.  

They looked upon religion as a seamless garment covering every aspect of life—ethics, doctrines, codes, customs, manners, dress, diet and the like.

No. The saw that once the age of Empires ended, the successor states would be confessional, not linguistic. This was the message of the Treaty of Lausanne and the partition of Ireland.  

This is the tragedy of modern South Asia too.

No. The tragedy of modern South Asia is that stupid Socialistic policies were followed. India, Pakistan etc. should have got rural girls into giant factory dormitories and gone in for export-led growth.  

What Jinnah said in his famous 1940 Lahore speech is applicable to Savarkar too. Hinduism and Islam, he said, were not “religions in the strict sense of the word” but “different and distinct social orders.” Religion as social order encompassed practically everything. Therefore, Jinnah concluded, to place Hindus and Muslims under the same state—as Gandhi’s civic nationalism wanted to do—could only lead to their “final destruction.”

Jinnah, like other politicians, talked bollocks. But, he was right. Nobody proposed a reversal of Partition after he died.  

Final destruction is a terrible, but accurate way of describing the outcome of the inability to distinguish between religious doctrines and religious ethics.

There is no such distinction. Religious ethics are part and parcel of Religious doctrines.  

Where religion becomes a complete social order, it becomes less and less personal, more and more national, and more and more violent.

No. Religion as a complete social order is perfectly compatible with peaceful co-existence in a multi-confessional Empire or World Order.  But contrast, there can be very violent nationalistic or ideological wars of conquest. 

The final destruction of pluralistic societies inevitably follows.

No. That destruction happens by demographic replacement.  

Only the civic virtue of nonviolence can prevent this from happening.

It is wholly useless. Britain would not have been able to preserve its pluralism if, as per Gandhi's advise, it had surrendered to Hitler.  

So far we have spoken of nonviolence as a civic virtue.

It is nothing at all. The vast majority of people are non-violent. Curbing the nuisance posed by 'Civil Disobedience', however, may involve some minimal violence. It also imposes an 'opportunity cost' on society. Still, the thing must be done from time to time. As happened with Gandhi & Co, nutters quickly quieten down after a spell of porridge.  

But no account of Gandhi’s philosophy of nonviolence would be complete without a mention his idea of heroic nonviolence--in his terminology, “nonviolence of the brave” or “nonviolence as creed”.

This is like the marvellous mathematics of the innumerate or the great wealth of the drunken beggar.  

Heroic nonviolence is based on the principle that sometimes it is better to endure violence, even when innocent, than to retaliate.

Queuing up to get hit on the head is plain silly. Gandhi stopped doing it.  

Towards the end of his life, he spoke of heroic nonviolence more and more frequently. “We shall never learn the art of mutual forbearance and toleration till some of us, though perfectly innocent, have staggered Indian humanity by losing our lives.”

Lala Lajpat Rai did lose his life when he was hit on the head. That was what provoked Bhagat Singh into killing a policeman.  

Just three months before his death we find him saying the following: “Today we have come to regard each other as enemies….But we do not want to regard anyone as our enemy, nor do we want to become enemies. I have already said that I shall do or die in Delhi. I have come here with that intention.”

He died. The percentage of Muslims in the population plummeted. Nehru brought in an ordinance preventing those who had fled in panic from returning to claim their property.  

Gandhi said that he had discovered the idea of heroic nonviolence in what he called the Jesus tradition. “The idea is that you appropriate to yourself and assimilate the essence of His sacrifice. His sacrifice is symbolically represented by the bread and wine of the Eucharist. A man who was completely innocent offered Himself as a sacrifice for the good of others, including his enemies….Whether the Jesus tradition is historically true or not, I do not care. To me it is truer than history because I hold it to be possible and it enshrined an eternal law—the law of vicarious suffering taken in its true sense.”

Jesus rose again after 3 days. In the next 40 days he performed so many miracles that a Book which recorded each of them would be larger than the World.  

I mention heroic nonviolence here mainly for the record. It must be emphasized that civic nonviolence, not heroic nonviolence, provides the moral basis of Pax Gandhiana. Heroic nonviolence is available only to rare individuals, while civic nonviolence is within the reach of the average citizen.

Breathing is available to the average citizen. Breathing heroically is a rare gift. But, since everybody breathes, it is foolish to claim to be a Great Sage just because you have devoted your life to breathing heroically or farting in a virile and vigorous manner.  

But there was another obstacle that was standing in the way of nonviolence and civic nationalism, viz., Untouchability and caste prejudice.

No. Neither poses any obstacle at all. However, Gandhi needed to crush Ambedkar and other independent Dalit leaders so as to keep his obligatory passage point status. Thankfully, he failed miserably.  

Untouchability for him was a metaphor for what was wrong with the Indian society.

Everything was a metaphor for what was wrong with an Indian society which didn't worship Gandhi  to the exclusion of all else.  

Since the subject is well known, I shall limit myself to examining how Gandhi managed to overcome his caste prejudice and discovered his true humanity.

His Mummy told him- 'if a Dalit boy touches you while playing then be sure to touch a Muslim so as to pass on the evil rather than bring it home with you.' 

He approached the problem at the personal level and the social level. At the personal level he sought to overcome caste prejudice by overcoming its root cause-- fear of ritual pollution. To this end, he devised a very ingenious method: members of the Gandhi household would clean the chamber pots of house guests: and on one occasion it so happened that the guest was an Indian Christian of Untouchable descent. Mrs Gandhi strongly objected to this method, so strongly indeed that the fight that ensued threatened to wreck their marriage. This was in 1898, in South Africa. Two decades later, in 1915, in India, a similar thing happened, this time in his ashram. He invited an Untouchable family to join the ashram, to which Mrs Gandhi once again objected, and she was joined now by his cousin, and the deputy head of the ashram. They threatened to quit. Although the matter was later resolved amicably, the incident showed how difficult it was even for members of the Gandhi household and ashram to overcome caste prejudice.

Still, the big takeaway from the above is the news that if you want to get on the right side of a Gandhi, offer him your chamber-pot to clean. No doubt, he'd also be very grateful if you piss on his face. 

The odd thing is that people who didn't bother to clean chamber pots had already changed the ritual status of numberless Dalit castes. It turns out that economic success and an upper middle class habitus is what actually determines status. Whether some virtue signaller wiped your bum or sucked you off does not matter in the slightest. Similarly, a leper remains a leper even if the Pope washes his feet.  

At the social level the task was even more daunting. He had to face the criticism not only of Hindu Orthodoxy but also of Dr. Ambedkar, the great leader of the Untouchables. Even his own city of Ahmedabad refused to open its temples to Harijans. The same was true in Wardha and Sevagram, his adopted village. The barber in Sevagram refused to cut his hair in retaliation for his hiring an Untouchable as his cook. (So he learnt to cut his own hair). There was partial success in Travancore, where, thanks to the state, a few temples were thrown open to the Harijans. The conclusion was inescapable: the battle against caste prejudice could never be won without the support of the coercive state. Ethics alone was not enough.

No. The inescapable conclusion was that Maharajas and Mahatmas and Snake Charmers were useless. Industrialization, Urbanization, a mass-consumerist culture, was what got rid of a feudal type of social stratification. 

Come to think of it, conscription into the Army and fighting a total war was another way to get rid of bigotry. Americans from the South accepted increased de-segregation in the Army because it was preferable to have a 'coloured' officer leading your platoon to victory, then a good ol' boy who got you massacred. 

III
Gandhi’s distinctive contribution to the theory of civic nonviolence is

telling stupid lies about its efficacy. It simply isn't true that he achieved anything whatsoever. In South Africa, Smuts had to climb down over the poll tax because the alternative was Westminster having to pay for the repatriation and resettlement of Indian 'coolies'. In India itself, Gandhi's contribution was to unilaterally surrender in 1922 just when the Irish and Egyptians and Afghans were getting what they wanted.  

that its effectiveness depends on the coercive state.

Every state is coercive. India hanged Gandhi's assassin.  

The state and civic nonviolence

not to mention breathing and farting 

are compatible for two main reasons. First, a coercive power structure is necessary for human well being. Without the state, civil society descends into chaos.

No. Either there is a Thymotic society where Clans practice vendetta or else a Town- a Polis or 'Civil Society'- hires guys to fuck up troublemakers and curb nuisances. If there is no Civil Society, then a bunch of rich guys from abroad, or a smart pirate or other type of gangster, sets up as a 'Stationary Bandit'.  

Perfect nonviolence is possible only in the disembodied existence.

No. If you don't have a body you can't be either violent or non-violent.  

In the embodied existence the state is indispensable.

Unless it isn't.  

“All life in the flesh exists by some violence

No. Violence only occurs under certain circumstances- e.g. extreme scarcity, genetic malfunction in the case of maniacal serial killers, etc, etc. 

…violence is an inherent necessity for life in the body…None while in the flesh, can thus be entirely free from violence because one never completely renounces the will to live.” “No doubt, destruction in some form or other of some life is inevitable.”

This is a rehash of arguments made some 2000 years ago. The question was whether certain spiritual adepts could gain supernatural 'siddhas' such that they rose above the 'aashrav' or ingress of such karma-binding properties.  Gandhi, poor sap, thought sleeping naked with young girls might grant him such powers.  

The second reason why civic nonviolence needs the state is this: it alone can make the peaceful enjoyment of human rights available to every citizen.

But no State has in fact done any such thing. Even as I speak, it is likely that there are female sex-slaves within a mile's radius of my home. They have been trafficked into the country. Human rights are ineffective if the remedies are incentive incompatible. It must be the case that criminal gangs can either bribe or intimidate the authorities such that this scandalous situation continues to obtain. Indeed, it may be that Human Rights law is an effective shield for the traffickers, not their victims.  

Without the mediation of the state, the pursuit of rights leads to violence.

This happens even with the mediation of the state. Police officers get shot all the time. At the margin, this discourages their presence in 'no-go' areas. The pretence that the 'pigs' are all 'Fascists', can contribute to the collapse of basic entitlements in poorer neighborhoods.  

The good state prevents this from happening. And the good state uses coercion legitimately, when coercion is based on consent, and when it is exercised by the institutions of representative government. But consent and representative institutions alone are not enough to give legitimacy of the Gandhian state. To be legitimate, the state should also recognize that the citizen has a spiritual soul and that citizens have the right to exercise soul-force in their dealings with the state. Satyagraha is based on this assumption.

This is meaningless. Citizens have rights whether or not they say they are exercising soul-force or the super-power of breathing heroically or, indeed, if they are Socioproctologists inching closer to Heaven by reason of the propulsive power of their super-smelly farts.  

This is an important stipulation, for it distinguishes Gandhi’s state from the Machiavellian and the Hobbesean state.

Why stop there? Why not distinguish the Gandhian state from the Rahulian state which is constantly opening the grocery store of Lurve in the bazaar of Hatred?  

Machiavelli boasted that he preferred the state whose citizens loved the state more than they did their souls.

He failed. The Papacy prevailed.  

Hobbes’ state had no room for the soul; it had room for everything else--the senses, imagination, the passions, speech, and instrumental reason, but not for the soul.

But the Brits don't give a fig for Hobbes or Locke or any other such tosser.  

Gandhi’s reintroduction of the soul into political theory alters the theory of the state and the conception of politics itself.

No it doesn't. It has no effect whatsoever because it is stupid shit.  

Consent makes obedience to the coercive state necessary.

No. Consent does not involve obedience. It is limited in scope to a particular action or set of actions of a transactional type. I may consent to undergo a medical procedure. I am not swearing allegiance to the Surgeon.  

Soul-force makes disobedience also necessary.

No. It may make a refusal to consent to a particular action or set of actions necessary. But obedience or disobedience is never entailed by compliance or even consent.  

The reality of soul-force makes satyagraha a part of Gandhi’s theory of the state.

What reality? Gandhi's 'soul-force' was useless. Telling lies about it can't alter facts.  

There are two things which cannot be done without the coercive power of the state. The first is the maintenance of internal order or the nonviolent enjoyment of human rights.

This can be wholly decentralized- as, indeed, it was in England and most other polities in the eighteenth century. There need be no standing army or central police force. Keeping the peace can be a wholly parochial affair. Indeed, in much of Gandhi's India this remained the case.  

The second is external security. What is perhaps most surprising to many is Gandhi’s endorsement of the right of the state to self-defense by military means.

Unless Hitler was attacking them in which case they should surrender.  

Here two cases deserve mention. The first is his support for World War I and his active recruiting campaign for the Indian Army. He wrote two Bulletins explaining why he did this, for which he was heavily criticized most fiercely by his friends, including C. F. Andrews. Gandhi’s reasoning here is of great philosophical interest.

No. The plain fact is, Gandhi had participated as an Ambulance man in two British wars and had volunteered to serve in the Great War. Indians should join the Army to learn how to fight. Unlike silly Christians who misunderstood the Sermon on the Mount, Hindus and Muslims and Sikhs knew that being a soldier is glorious. Warriors slain in battle gain Heaven.  

First, there are certain things that make a country fit for swaraj, and the ability to defend itself militarily is one of them. Secondly, it was the absence of this ability that led India to the colonial subjugation in the first place. Thirdly, joining the Army is a quick way of acquiring this ability. Finally, and here he attacks the old philosophy of nonviolence: in the name of other-worldly pursuits, the old philosophy of nonviolence had put on shelf the duty of self-defense by military means. The political decline of India was the inevitable result. And unless this pseudo-philosophy was rooted out from the Indian soil, he asserts, there can be no lasting peace in the land. Wars in certain conditions may be a necessary evil, and when that is the case, the practitioner of nonviolence does not have the luxury of standing by the side lines.

Gandhi's mistake was to babble this nonsense to his fellow Gujaratis some of whom were aware that the British Army (and those of the Princely States) were doing poorly in East Africa. Some innocent Indians in Kenya were made scapegoats and hanged as collaborators with the Germans. 

But his weightiest defense of the right to self-defense by military means comes from his formal statement at the Second Round Table Conference here in London in 1931. This is the only conference on a constitution for India that he ever attended. “I think that a nation that has no control over her own defense forces and over her external policy is hardly a responsible nation. Defense, its army is to a nation the very essence of its existence, and if a nation’s defense is controlled by an outside agency, no matter how friendly it is, then that nation is certainly not responsibly governed…Hence I am here respectfully to claim complete control over the army, over the defense forces and over external affairs….I would wait till eternity if I cannot get control over defense. I refuse to deceive myself that I am going to embark upon responsible government although I cannot control my defense….That is my fundamental position.”

Around this time there was an Islamic insurrection against the Maharaja of Kashmir. The Indian Army went to his rescue just as it did in 1948. In this context, Gandhi demanding that the Brits hand over control over the Army to the Hindu Congress was completely unacceptable to the Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Non-Brahmin Tamils, Dalits, etc. 

In 1939, Gandhi explained that without the Army the Hindus- and Congress was a Hindu party- would be at the mercy of aggressive Muslims and Punjabis.  

Gandhi’s position on war and nonviolence changed considerably after World War II. Its horrors including the holocaust and the introduction of nuclear weapons forced him to rethink his position on self-defense by military means. He began to think in terms of developing means of nonviolent national civil self-defense, and progressive disarmament.

Not really. At a later point, people like Rajaji did jump on this bandwagon but, the fact is, Nehru & Co were already thinking of getting nukes for India. 

In June 1946, Nehru announced- ' As long as the world is constituted as it is, every country will have to devise and use the latest devices for its protection. I have no doubt India will develop her scientific researches and I hope Indian scientists will use the atomic force for constructive purposes. But if India is threatened, she will inevitably try to defend herself by all means at her disposal.' 

Still, these changes did not mean any change in his belief in the right to self-defense. As a statesman and political thinker, he believed in the right to self-defense by military means, although as an individual, and as one capable of heroic nonviolence, he would no longer participate in any war.

Because he was very very old and, in any case, wholly useless.  

For all his defense of the state, Gandhi was firmly opposed to the tendency of the modern state to over-extend itself and stifle individual initiative.

Where? Perhaps in Socialist shitholes, 'individual initiative' and  private enterprise are stifled. But America isn't exactly a Communist country is it?  

He looked upon this tendency, he said, “with the greatest fear, because although while apparently doing good by minimizing exploitation, it does greatest harm to mankind by destroying individuality, which lies at the root of all progress.”

Gandhi did favour quickly lifting price controls. He was, after all, a Bania. Indeed, when not gassing on about 'soul-force' he could be sensible enough.  

He was a minimalist as far as the extent of state power was concerned. His “good state” (surajya) would meet the welfare needs of citizens with the help of Non-governmental Organizations. Citing Thoreau’s dictum, “that government is the best which governs the least,” he asserted that a country that ran smoothly without much state interference was truly democratic and truly nonviolent.

No doubt, Gandhi thought the First Nations were treated very nicely in Thoreau's America.  

Gandhi’s position on legitimate self-defense by coercive means sets him apart from traditional pacifists, including Leo Tolstoy.

But Tolstoy had gone mad. Still, he was a writer of genius. 

For Tolstoy the state was the big enemy of nonviolence.

Coz Cossacks aint violent at all. Still, he didn't live to see the greater violence unleashed by the Bolsheviks.  

The members of his nonviolent society would live in small communes, isolated form the state. In other words, nonviolence for Tolstoy was a luxury that only a small spiritual minority could afford.

No. At the time, it seemed reasonable to suppose that the majority of Russians would live in self-managing village communes.    

Not so for Gandhi. He would engage with the coercive state and, with it as a partner, would seek to bring civic nonviolence within the reach of every citizen.

By getting them to do stupid shit like spin cotton. This failed.  

He saw the state as the indispensable building bloc of Pax Gandiana.

He wanted to take over the machinery the Brits had put in place. So did his rivals.  

A nonviolent international order should be an organization of independent but interdependent states,

Like the League of Nations- right? 

not warring one against another, but cooperating with one another. If states were nonviolent in the sense we have described here, a coalition of such states would create a regional zone of peace. There is something in Gandhi’s civic nonviolence that is comparable to Immanuel Kant’s republicanism.

No. Gandhi's retarded shite was just rehashed Wilsonism from 1918.  

Kant believed that a league of republican states could create a zone of regional peace.

As could a League of Emperors.  

There is something common between Pax Gandhiana and Pax Kantiana. Each

is stupid shit. 

favors the creation of zones of peace in the international system.

Even though such zones of peace have always existed.  


To conclude: I have been arguing that the success of Pax Gandhiana in India will depend on a new philosophy of nonviolence, on civic nationalism, and a limited coercive state.

So, the thing will fail as it has failed. It is useless shit.  

The greatest threat that it faces comes from prejudices that originate in religion, caste and ethnicity.

No. Being as poor as shit and having babies like crazy is the big problem India faces. The solution is to get rural girls into big factory dormitories and let demographic transition occur.  

To combat these prejudices we need a universal ethic that has the sanction of all historical religions.

No. We need to pursue sensible economic policies.  

I have presented Pax Gandhiana as a secular, social and political order, one that gives citizen identity priority over religious identity or ethnic identity.

But this is what Britain and America and so forth already do.  

But a purely secular ethic can neither bring Pax Gandhiana into being nor sustain it.

Nor can anything else. So what? The thing is shit.  

It can be brought into being and sustained by an ethic that has its roots in a transcendental source. This can be found, I maintain, in the golden rule that is common to all historical religions.

No it can't. The golden rule is stupid. There should be specialization and trade on the basis of comparative advantage. Do unto others as they pay you to do. You don't have to let them to anything unto you unless that's what floats your boat.  

But today’s India, generally speaking, does not seem to see religious prejudice and caste prejudice as the greatest threats to peace and stability.

Today's India, like yesterday's India, and tomorrow's India, wants to get rich and more secure. So does everybody else. Still, as a matter of 'vote-bank' politics, people will continue to mention religion and caste and the superiority of the mother tongue. 

This may explain why it is far easier for someone like Anna Hazare to mobilize the masses against the corruption of politicians than it is to mobilize them against the violence that they practice daily on the basis of religion, caste or ethnicity.

This is silly. Hazare got financial backing and the support of RSS cadres. The aim was to delegitimize UPA 2- which was unravelling in any case. The big surprise was that it was Kejriwal and not Bedi who became CM of Delhi. Will he continue to rise? Perhaps not. Kharge could make Congress the anti-corruption party. If he can repeat his success in Karnataka in MP then AAM will decline. Punjab doesn't seem to be doing too well under the drunkard Mann.  

Gandhi would remind them that even after the last corrupt politician has been punished, India will still remain an unstable and a violent society unless it can find ‘five true Indians’ “with whom there is neither Hindu nor Muslim nor any other”, or with whom there is neither high caste nor low caste nor out-caste. Pax Gandhiana depends on them. May their tribe increase.

This is nonsense. Stability and Non-Violence cost money to provide. A country pursuing sensible economic policies has more resources to provide both. There is a virtuous circle. There is no need for 'five true Indians' or 'ten little Indians' or any such shite. On the other hand, in the North East, some political solution must be found such that different ethnicities can peacefully co-exist. But, for that to happen, the Seven Sisters must have a more orient economic horizon.